Over and back?

[Beatles62270]

A1 is dribbling the ball in the frontcourt very close to the division line. A1 picks up her dribble and B1 closes in. As A1 is trying to pass the ball B1 taps the ball free from A1 in the air and the ball is out of her posession for a half second. As A1 pivots to catch the ball, her left foot in the frontcourt, she has her right foot in the air. She regains control of the ball and then her right foot lands in the backcourt. Is this a violation?

[PAULK1]

Yes

[JugglingReferee]

Originally Posted by Beatles62270

A1 is dribbling the ball in the frontcourt very close to the division line. A1 picks up her dribble and B1 closes in. As A1 is trying to pass the ball B1 taps the ball free from A1 in the air and the ball is out of her posession for a half second. As A1 pivots to catch the ball, her left foot in the frontcourt, she has her right foot in the air. She regains control of the ball and then her right foot lands in the backcourt. Is this a violation?

Yes.

A1 caused the ball to be in team control in the FC. A1 caused the ball to go into the BC and was first to touch the ball giving it BC status.

[Beatles62270]

I had this play last night and I called a violation. Just wanted to make sure I had it correct as I am a new official.

[Nevadaref]

But if A1 puts her right foot down in the backcourt prior to catching the ball, I'm not penalizing her no matter what that silly Interp #10 says.

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

But if A1 puts her right foot down in the backcourt prior to catching the ball, I'm not penalizing her no matter what that silly Interp #10 says.

I'm thinking you're just kidding... but by rule it's still a violation, correct?

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by Ch1town

I'm thinking you're just kidding... but by rule it's still a violation, correct?

If B1 tips the ball, A1 steps first in the BC, then catches the ball, that should not be a violation. A was not the last to touch the ball in FC.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Ch1town

I'm thinking you're just kidding... but by rule it's still a violation, correct?

Nope. By rule the play is legal. By recent NFHS interpretation the play is a backcourt violation, and I have just decreed that interpretation to be null and void.

By unilateral decree...