Hand ball...by the referee!

[Back In The Saddle]

Saw this in an AAU game earlier this week. A is taking an end line throw in. Ref hands the ball to A1, and then starts to back out while begining his count. A1 makes a very quick throw which strikes the referee's counting hand and deflects, otherwise untouched, out of bounds over the side line.

Is this:

a) OOB violation on the ref for being the last to touch it?
b) OOB violation on A?
c) Throw-in violation on A for throwing it OOB untouched by any player?
d) Throw-in violation on A for not throwing the ball directly into the court?
e) Too weird to call anything, just blow it dead and "reset"?

[Nevadaref]

If the official was touching OOB when the ball contacted his hand/arm, then the thrown ball has contacted someone OOB other than a player and is a throw-in violation on A1 at that point. So per the strict rules, the answer is C.

However, choice E is probably going to be well accepted by the participants in the game.

[BillyMac]

c) Throw-in violation on A for throwing it OOB untouched by any player?

I was taught to almost always treat the official like he, or she, was part of the court, be it inbounds, or out of bounds. The only exception that I'm aware of, is when a player with the ball who is inbounds touches an official who is out of bounds, there is no violation here, because in this case the official is a person out of bounds, not a thing out of bounds.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

If the official was touching OOB when the ball contacted his hand/arm, then the thrown ball has contacted someone OOB other than a player and is a throw-in violation on A1 at that point. So per the strict rules, the answer is C.

However, choice E is probably going to be well accepted by the participants in the game.

Agree.

E is an easy sell imo. Just tell the coaches that you inadvertently interfered with the throw-in.

[26 Year Gap]

I usually step away so I don't chop anyone with my counting arm or my start the clock chop.

[mick]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Agree.

E is an easy sell imo. Just tell the coaches that you inadvertently interfered with the throw-in.

Good call.
I would try to put it back in quickly after my whistle, to prevent such discussion.
If in-throwing team had endline privilege, I would allow it again.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

If the official was touching OOB when the ball contacted his hand/arm, then the thrown ball has contacted someone OOB other than a player and is a throw-in violation on A1 at that point. So per the strict rules, the answer is C.

I think it would be "D". The ball hit the official while the official was on the end-line. So, the ball hit the end-line. This boceomes the same as a bounce-pass inbounds that hits OOB first.

[mick]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

I think it would be "D". The ball hit the official while the official was on the end-line. So, the ball hit the end-line. This boceomes the same as a bounce-pass inbounds that hits OOB first.

Not for me.
The way I see the original Post, player tried to pass to teammate.
In-thrower didn't attempt to bounce the pass off the floor or off the ref.
Swinging hand got in the way. Don't penalize either team.

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by mick

Not for me.
The way I see the original Post, player tried to pass to teammate.
In-thrower didn't attempt to bounce the pass off the floor or off the ref.
Swinging hand got in the way. Don't penalize either team.

By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.

But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.

[mick]

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle

By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.

But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.

Is Bob ever incorrect ?
By rule [Referee's Authority], I would not feel incorrect.

Of course, no player will ever hit my swinging hand, cuz, though I may countin', I ain't swingin' until I am away.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by mick

Is Bob ever incorrect ?
By rule [Referee's Authority], I would not feel incorrect.

Of course, no player will ever hit my swinging hand, cuz, though I may countin', I ain't swingin' until I am away.

I'm wrong approximately 682 times a day -- I have a wife and a teen dughter, you know.

And, I was givign the "rules" answer, not the "do what's right" answer.

And, if an official swings with the arm closest to the inbounder / towards OOB, the play won't happen.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle

By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.

But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.

Of course, that assumes the ball went inbounds. If it bounced back to the thrower or otherwise stayed OOB, it would be the same as the thrower dribbling the ball during the throwin...no violation!

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Of course, that assumes the ball went inbounds. If it bounced back to the thrower or otherwise stayed OOB, it would be the same as the thrower dribbling the ball during the throwin...no violation!

Hmmm, hadn't thought about that one.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Of course, that assumes the ball went inbounds. If it bounced back to the thrower or otherwise stayed OOB, it would be the same as the thrower dribbling the ball during the throwin...no violation!

Actually, it doesn't matter where the ball went. What is important is if the official judges that the player was indeed making a throw-in pass. If that was the case, then a violation occurred.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Actually, it doesn't matter where the ball went. What is important is if the official judges that the player was indeed making a throw-in pass. If that was the case, then a violation occurred.

You wanna cite the rule and explain this a little further, please?