Hand in contact with ball

[gsilvest]

A question from a recreational player hoping to learn more about the (FIBA) rules :

If an offensive player has a firm grasp of the ball with both hands and a defensive player strikes the ball forcing the offensive player to loose control of the ball, that I would say is a fair play. However is it a foul if at the same time as the defensive player strikes the ball they also strike the offensive players hand ? To put it another way, is the hand considered part of the ball or not ?

I have heard it argued either way; that is, different people have said that it is and is not a foul. I've read the FIBA rules and can't seem to find a reference either way to this situation.

Personally I would argue that it is a foul because physical contact was involved and a player was disadvantaged.

A slight twist on this, what if the contact was caused by follow through. For example, a clean 'slap of the ball was amde that caused loss of control, but on the follow through of the slap contact was made. In this case the contact caused no advantage (other than a red mark on the hand !) - no call ?

Finally, is there any good sites that have interpretations of the rules ?

Thanks,

Gary

[BktBallRef]

Unless Feeble rules are different, accidentally hitting the hand when it's in contact with the ball is not a foul.

[Oz Referee]

Originally posted by gsilvest
A question from a recreational player hoping to learn more about the (FIBA) rules :

If an offensive player has a firm grasp of the ball with both hands and a defensive player strikes the ball forcing the offensive player to loose control of the ball, that I would say is a fair play. However is it a foul if at the same time as the defensive player strikes the ball they also strike the offensive players hand ? To put it another way, is the hand considered part of the ball or not ?

I have heard it argued either way; that is, different people have said that it is and is not a foul. I've read the FIBA rules and can't seem to find a reference either way to this situation.

Personally I would argue that it is a foul because physical contact was involved and a player was disadvantaged.

A slight twist on this, what if the contact was caused by follow through. For example, a clean 'slap of the ball was amde that caused loss of control, but on the follow through of the slap contact was made. In this case the contact caused no advantage (other than a red mark on the hand !) - no call ?

Finally, is there any good sites that have interpretations of the rules ?

Thanks,

Gary

At last - a specific FIBA question!

Yes it is OK to hit the hand when it is in contact with the ball. This used to be specifically allowed according to the rules. However, in the 2000 rule change, this comment was withdrawn. And this caused some confusion, because people felt that this now meant that it was specifically prohibited.

About March of this year, an email was sent to all FIBA Rules Interpreters, advising them that: it is still permissible to make contact with the hand on the ball, however, if the official has any doubt as to which part of the offensive player was contacted, (ie hand vs wrist) then the call must be a foul.

If the contact was called on the follow through, technically it would be a foul, but I cannot see why anyone would call it, as there is no advantage/disadvantage.

Hope I have helped.

[JeffRef]

Originally posted by gsilvest
A question from a recreational player hoping to learn more about the (FIBA) rules :

If an offensive player has a firm grasp of the ball with both hands and a defensive player strikes the ball forcing the offensive player to loose control of the ball, that I would say is a fair play. However is it a foul if at the same time as the defensive player strikes the ball they also strike the offensive players hand ? To put it another way, is the hand considered part of the ball or not ?

I have heard it argued either way; that is, different people have said that it is and is not a foul. I've read the FIBA rules and can't seem to find a reference either way to this situation.

Personally I would argue that it is a foul because physical contact was involved and a player was disadvantaged.

A slight twist on this, what if the contact was caused by follow through. For example, a clean 'slap of the ball was amde that caused loss of control, but on the follow through of the slap contact was made. In this case the contact caused no advantage (other than a red mark on the hand !) - no call ?

Finally, is there any good sites that have interpretations of the rules ?

Thanks,

Gary

Gary, Duane is dead on with the interpretation. If you're looking for FIBA interpretations, there are 2 downloadable documents on their website http://www.FIBA.COM which cover some situations. Also, if you live in Canada, CABO produces a casebook of FIBA interpretations. It's only available in print. Hope the info helps.

[Oz Referee]

Alternatively, you could follow the link to FIBA rules page from my website:

www.Ref-Basketball.com