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Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle
By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.
But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.
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Is Bob ever incorrect ?
By rule [Referee's Authority], I would not feel incorrect.
Of course, no player will ever hit my swinging hand, cuz, though I may countin', I ain't swingin' until I am away.