Hand ball...by the referee!

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

If the official was touching OOB when the ball contacted his hand/arm, then the thrown ball has contacted someone OOB other than a player and is a throw-in violation on A1 at that point. So per the strict rules, the answer is C.

I think it would be "D". The ball hit the official while the official was on the end-line. So, the ball hit the end-line. This boceomes the same as a bounce-pass inbounds that hits OOB first.

[mick]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

I think it would be "D". The ball hit the official while the official was on the end-line. So, the ball hit the end-line. This boceomes the same as a bounce-pass inbounds that hits OOB first.

Not for me.
The way I see the original Post, player tried to pass to teammate.
In-thrower didn't attempt to bounce the pass off the floor or off the ref.
Swinging hand got in the way. Don't penalize either team.

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by mick

Not for me.
The way I see the original Post, player tried to pass to teammate.
In-thrower didn't attempt to bounce the pass off the floor or off the ref.
Swinging hand got in the way. Don't penalize either team.

By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.

But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.

[mick]

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle

By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.

But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.

Is Bob ever incorrect ?
By rule [Referee's Authority], I would not feel incorrect.

Of course, no player will ever hit my swinging hand, cuz, though I may countin', I ain't swingin' until I am away.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by mick

Is Bob ever incorrect ?
By rule [Referee's Authority], I would not feel incorrect.

Of course, no player will ever hit my swinging hand, cuz, though I may countin', I ain't swingin' until I am away.

I'm wrong approximately 682 times a day -- I have a wife and a teen dughter, you know.

And, I was givign the "rules" answer, not the "do what's right" answer.

And, if an official swings with the arm closest to the inbounder / towards OOB, the play won't happen.

[Camron Rust]

Originally Posted by Back In The Saddle

By rule I think Bob is right. If the ball touching the ref is the same as the ball touching the spot where the ref was standing, then this would be the same as the throw-in pass touching the ground oob before going into the court. Ergo, violation D.

But I also think the right way to handle it is to not penalize A for this fluke. Blow it dead, and do it again.

Of course, that assumes the ball went inbounds. If it bounced back to the thrower or otherwise stayed OOB, it would be the same as the thrower dribbling the ball during the throwin...no violation!

[Back In The Saddle]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Of course, that assumes the ball went inbounds. If it bounced back to the thrower or otherwise stayed OOB, it would be the same as the thrower dribbling the ball during the throwin...no violation!

Hmmm, hadn't thought about that one.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Of course, that assumes the ball went inbounds. If it bounced back to the thrower or otherwise stayed OOB, it would be the same as the thrower dribbling the ball during the throwin...no violation!

Actually, it doesn't matter where the ball went. What is important is if the official judges that the player was indeed making a throw-in pass. If that was the case, then a violation occurred.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Actually, it doesn't matter where the ball went. What is important is if the official judges that the player was indeed making a throw-in pass. If that was the case, then a violation occurred.

You wanna cite the rule and explain this a little further, please?

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

Actually, it doesn't matter where the ball went. What is important is if the official judges that the player was indeed making a throw-in pass. If that was the case, then a violation occurred.

Originally Posted by just another ref

You wanna cite the rule and explain this a little further, please?

Sure. The provisions that govern the throw-in which are listed in 9-2 place that restriction upon the THROW-IN PASS, not on any other action of the thrower such as bouncing the ball OOB at his side or making a pass to another OOB teammate. It would be incorrect to apply the rules governing the THROW-IN PASS to action which does not constitute such.
For example, we know that a player may throw a bounce pass to another OOB teammate following a made goal. That pass is not subject to the same restrictions as the THROW-IN PASS, which cannot bounce OOB before going to the teammate.

Therefore, it is imperative that the official first make a determination as to whether or not a player is attempting to make a throw-in pass or is just doing something else with the ball while OOB before he makes a decision upon the legality of the action.