Inadv. Whistle Question

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Mark Dexter

Wait.

If the ball has frontcourt status, last touched by A, and A1 touches it in this situation, you have a backcourt violation the moment A1 touches the ball, as he still has backcourt status until he lands in the frontcourt.

You and Hartsy both took that out of context. It was written for a situation in which there is no team control when the player becomes airborne. I'm only talking about a situation in which a player from a team causes the ball to go from backcourt to frontcourt. My sentence specifies that. It does NOT pertain to a situation in which the team causes the ball to go: frontcourt to the backcourt and back to the frontcourt. That is the example which the two of you gave.

Additionally, Scrapper pointed out that in your scenario the violation would occur prior to the player landing, no matter if he lands in the frontcourt or the backcourt.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by CoachP

Oh, no, sorry, I was reflecting on zoochys post.

But, now that you ask, the OP said the ball hit the floor before A2 caught it. Does that mean the ball has FC status?

Yes it does. The ball does have frontcourt status in the play of the OP. Of course, there is no team control at that time so it doesn't matter.

[Mark Dexter]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

You and Hartsy both took that out of context. It was written for a situation in which there is no team control when the player becomes airborne. I'm only talking about a situation in which a player from a team causes the ball to go from backcourt to frontcourt. My sentence specifies that. It does NOT pertain to a situation in which the team causes the ball to go: frontcourt to the backcourt and back to the frontcourt. That is the example which the two of you gave.

Yabut - you emphasized NEVER. Triply so. Just pointing out the semantics of the words, if you will.

Additionally, Scrapper pointed out that in your scenario the violation would occur prior to the player landing, no matter if he lands in the frontcourt or the backcourt.

Yup. We all agree on that.

[Nevadaref]

Originally Posted by Mark Dexter

Yabut - you emphasized NEVER. Triply so. Just pointing out the semantics of the words, if you will.



Yup. We all agree on that.

Remember you have to read it in that philosophical, Jesuit way.

Now if you want semantics, I could amend it, just for you, to say:
"If the player does not violate immediately upon touching the ball, it is NEVER..."

But it's not really necessary to do so since I didn't say anything about the ball in that post!

[Brad]

Originally Posted by tmp44

The clinician on the game was of the opinion that Team A should have received the ball not because of the AP, but because team control started the moment A2 caught the ball, followed by the inadvertant whistle -- POI gives the ball to A. Thoughts?

The clinician is absolutely correct.