Timeout during free throw?????

[Dan_ref]

Originally Posted by Nevadaref

I still don't agree that your RRP example is relevant or that it makes my earlier statement false.

Dan asked me, "By what rule is the ball no longer at the disposal in this sitch?"

The logic of my response was that the ball is no longer at the disposal of the FT shooter because he had the ball, but now it is gone. That seems pretty simple.

Seems so simple that if the rules maker wanted it to work that way they would have written it that way.

But of course they didn't, and now you're making it up as you go along.

In fact, in the associated case play they want us to blow the whistle to prevent a violation. How can we have a violation if the FT has not ended yet the ball is not at the disposal?