Correctable error

[Adam]

I'm leaning towards the correctable error situation now. Otherwise, B is cheated out of a rebound they earned.

[just another ref]

Originally Posted by Snaqwells

I'm leaning towards the correctable error situation now. Otherwise, B is cheated out of a rebound they earned.

There was no rebound to get. Ball was dead, and played as dead by the lead official.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by just another ref

There was no rebound to get. Ball was dead, and played as dead by the lead official.

And what rule made the ball dead before the official blew his whistle?

[Reffin' Sgt]

Why didn't the calling official come in immediately to correct the lead official on the number of free throws?

Did both teams go after the rebound?

I agree that this meets the criteria for a correctable error.

Suppose that the teams were lined back up to shoot the second and A1 doinks it off the rim and A3 rebounds and gets a put back for two points.

Since B got the rebound on the first throw I think you clear the lane and continue from the POI.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by just another ref

The case book play which dealt with the opposite of this situation points out that action was necessary because the misinformation put someone at a disadvantage. In this case that is not true.

Not giving A1 his second merited FT wasn't putting him at a disadvantage?

[just another ref]

Quote:
Originally Posted by just another ref
The case book play which dealt with the opposite of this situation points out that action was necessary because the misinformation put someone at a disadvantage. In this case that is not true.

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

Not giving A1 his second merited FT wasn't putting him at a disadvantage?

That's the whole point I am trying to make. The lead blew his whistle, stopped the play, and immediately awarded him the second free throw.
Is it written somewhere that the one official giving erroneous information carries more weight than the real situation which is properly covered by the other official?

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by Gimlet25id

1) I guess it all depends when the calling official hit his whistle to stop play.

2) I think whether I go correctable or not would be if time ran off the clock.

1) According to the original post, the official blew his whistle after B1 had rebounded the missed FT.

2) Why would time running off the clock be a criteria that is needed to have a correctable error on this play? The clock starting isn't a rules requirement to have any correctable error occur afaik. It's just one of the parameters set up to define the time-limits that correctable errors are governed by.

[just another ref]

The correctable error in this case is failure to award a merited free throw, right? The thing is, we did not fail to award it. We are going to do so right now, immediately following the first. I see immediately as the key to the whole thing, and this was the word the original poster used to describe when he blew the whistle.

[tjones1]

I suppose this situation could have been prevented if the Trail (the calling official) would have confirmed how many shots before the lead bounced the ball to the shooter. This is something I always do. If I'm the lead, I double check with the trail. If I'm the trail, I hold up how many shots we have so when the lead looks over s/he can see and confirm.

[Gimlet25id]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

1) According to the original post, the official blew his whistle after B1 had rebounded the missed FT.

2) Why would time running off the clock be a criteria that is needed to have a correctable error on this play? The clock starting isn't a rules requirement to have any correctable error occur afaik. It's just one of the parameters set up to define the time-limits that correctable errors are governed by.

The OP said he hit his whistle immediatley. If time didn't run off then you could justify lining the players up because the whistle makes the ball dead and you was hitting the whistle as he was controlling the rebound. In fact a argument could be made that the ball was dead already by Rule 6-7 art.2a when the calling official verbalized 2 shots, especially if the shooter or any other player from the shooting team herd the calling official say 2 shots.

In the play mentioned on the OP one official says 2 shots and the other says 1 & 1. What if the shooting team knew it was 2 shots and didn't attempt to rebound. Would they be put @ a disadvantage if we invoke 2-10 and go POI with B keeping the ball when A didn't have a chance to rebound. I'm not saying you couldn't go correctable. My point is to make sure we give neither team a advantage. So if no time runs off I think it would help justify the ball was dead, line them up and shoot the second.

Trying to think out loud which way would be the best for the aforementioned game

Like I said you could go either way. I would just prefer to kill right away and line them up if I can. I would think that would be a easier sell then to try and explain the correctable error rule to the offended coach.

What if the shooting team is still down 2 points with under a few seconds left and their only hope is to rebound a missed free throw. If we invoke 2-10, let the A team shoot 1 more shot with the box cleared, they have no chance to get the rebound, assuming of course they knew it was 2 shots.

Just seem that it would fit the game better to line them back up and play on...if you can get by with it.

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally Posted by Gimlet25id

I would think that would be a easier sell then to try and explain the correctable error rule to the offended coach.

And what rule(s) are you going to cite to the offended coach rather than citing the correctable error rule? Ones that aren't applicable to the actual circumstances?

If you can logically explain a call citing existing rules, imo you never have to "sell" anything to anybody. The call sells itself.

Of course, the coach probably will not believe you anyway because he doesn't want to believe you.

[Gimlet25id]

Originally Posted by Jurassic Referee

And what rule(s) are you going to cite to the offended coach rather than citing the correctable error rule? Ones that aren't applicable to the actual circumstances?

If you can logically explain a call citing existing rules, imo you never have to "sell" anything to anybody. The call sells itself.

Of course, the coach probably will not believe you anyway because he doesn't want to believe you.

Hoping that I wouldn't have to explain a rule. If I can make a valid argument that the ball was already dead befor ethe rebound was possessed.

Do coach's ever believe anything we say...somebody has to be responsible for them losing the game...it sure wasn't them.

[Nevadaref]

People, why are you arguing about this? It is right there in the Case Book.


2.10.1 SITUATION B: A1 has been awarded two free throws. Erroneously, the ball is allowed to remain in play after A1 misses on the first attempt. A2 rebounds the miss and tosses the ball through the basket. B1 secures the ball and inbounds it. Play continues until a foul is called on A2 as B is passing the ball in B's frontcourt. RULING: The goal by A2 counts, but the error of not awarding A1 a second free throw is no longer correctable. Since the ball remained in play on the missed free throw, the clock started and the ball became dead when the goal was scored. When the ball became live on the subsequent throw-in, the time period for correction had expired.