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Old Thu Mar 24, 2005, 11:01pm
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Join Date: Dec 2003
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Quote:
Originally posted by bballrob
Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
I agree on it not being a foul, I disagree that A touched it last. If hitting the hand that is on the ball is not a foul,10-6-1, then logically striking the hand and knocking the ball out has to be considered hitting the ball.
BZ, this doesn't follow at all. Not being a foul is not equivalent to touching the ball.
I read 10-6-1 as the hand is part of the ball, how do you read it? How do you explain it when asked by a coach or player when a foul is not called on a hand hit?

There is no way I can logically accept giving the ball to the player who's contact caused the ball to go OOB. I seriously doubt the intent of the rule is for B to be rewarded for causing the ball to go out.
So the ball is going out of bounds. A1 saves it by throwing it off of B1s leg after which it goes OOB. A1 CAUSED the ball to go out of bounds off of B1. You mean to tell me that you're going to give the ball to B?
Big difference between throwing the ball off another player and hitting through the hand to propel the ball from A1's hand.
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