Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
Quote:
Originally posted by BktBallRef
Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
Quote:
Originally posted by bballrob
Quote:
Originally posted by blindzebra
Hand is considered part of the ball, and B hit the ball last.
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I figured this was the answer he was looking for, but i don't buy it in this situation.
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Why not? If B does not hit A's hand does the ball go OOB?
It is either a foul on B, because the contact did disadvantage A, or you expand 10-6-1 to cover this situation and penalize the player that DID cause the ball to go OOB.
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There is no foul.
A is the last to touch the ball.
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I agree on it not being a foul, I disagree that A touched it last. If hitting the hand that is on the ball is not a foul,10-6-1, then logically striking the hand and knocking the ball out has to be considered hitting the ball.
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Since when do the rules follow logic?
Also, the rule does not say the hand is part of the ball. That's a poor way of putting it, that can get us in trouble.
Absent a rule, interp, or ruling that says B caused the ball to go OOB, the ball is off A. B's ball.
But my guess is that B1 did not hit the hand without also touching the ball.
