Thread: whose ball?
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Old Fri Mar 25, 2005, 12:28am
Daryl H. Long Daryl H. Long is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2004
Location: Jerry City, Ohio
Posts: 394
BZ

You obviously did not read my post and don't put words in my mouth that I did not say. I agree with you on some things and disagree on others so read this posst and my previous post carefully before replying.

I quoted the rule exactly. The reason I brought it up is if you go back and read some of the comments they seemed to say that if contact was on hand on the ball a foul NEVER can be called, which is simply not true.

The criteria I cited for no foul is two-fold:
1. contact on hand while opponent's hand is on the ball.
AND
2. Incidental.

If both are not met call the foul. It can be personal, intentional, etc. (Give me rule support for ONLY intentional)

If both are met then ignore.

I agree with you that given the facts from the original post that the contact should be ruled incidental therefore by applying 10-6-1 no foul can be called. Incidental is also defined in Rule 4-27 specifically Articles 2 and 3 which apply more closely to this case. But I disagree with you on who will get the ball.

I say B will get the ball and cite Rule 7-2 as my support. The individual player who causes the ball to go out of bounds is the one who last TOUCHED or was TOUCHED by the ball.

In any case if B1's hand never come into contact with the ball then he DID NOT TOUCH IT.

If he did not touch it then he could not have caused the ball to go out of bounds.

I am open to your suggestion to the contrary but only if you can come up with specific wording in the rule book, case book, or other NFHS publication to support your position.

[Edited by Daryl H. Long on Mar 25th, 2005 at 12:49 AM]
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