using the foot question

[Jurassic Referee]

Originally posted by ChuckElias

Short jokes aside, you conveniently forgot to answer the second question in my post. I agree that the spirit of the rule is to prevent using the feet to control the ball. However, without a specific definition to the contrary, touching is not striking.

(A specific definition to the contrary would be like the definition of "intentional" as it pertains to intentional fouls.)

Chuck, the original post said that the player stopped the ball from rolling OOB by placing her foot on it. She then rolled the ball backward to herself. Now, I certainly don't have a Ph.D in anything, but that kinda implies to me that force had to be applied to the ball to get it to do those little tricks--stop it first and then give it a complete change of direction. Simply touching the ball would also affect it-even minutely- by applying a l'il bit of friction, wouldn't it? Isn't the over-all effect to actually control the ball with the foot, no matter what?

Btw, I thought the "intentional" part was a given.