Tue Mar 01, 2005, 05:06pm
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In Memoriam
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Join Date: Aug 2001
Location: Hell
Posts: 20,211
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
that kinda implies to me that force had to be applied to the ball to get it to do those little tricks--stop it first and then give it a complete change of direction. Simply touching the ball would also affect it-even minutely- by applying a l'il bit of friction, wouldn't it? Isn't the over-all effect to actually control the ball with the foot, no matter what?
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We're just talking semantics, now, b/c I totally agree that the original play is illegal. The spirit of the rule is to prevent a player from using his/her feet to play the ball.
And on top of that, the word "strike" doesn't even appear in the kick rule, except in a note that mentions "unintentionally striking" the ball.
Having said all that, applying a force is not striking. Pushing a shopping cart is applying a force, but that doesn't mean you're striking the shopping cart. Preventing a seated person from rising is applying a force, but is not striking that person.
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So.......you're saying that the wording used by the FED in R4-29 is inaccurate, in that the only action covered in the rule is the act of "striking". What do you propose as an alternative to that egregious mis-use of the language by the FED?
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