Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Does "placing" one's foot on top of the ball really equal "striking" it?
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Yes.
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Short jokes aside, you conveniently forgot to answer the second question in my post. I agree that the spirit of the rule is to prevent using the feet to control the ball. However, without a specific definition to the contrary, touching is not striking.
(A specific definition to the contrary would be like the definition of "intentional" as it pertains to intentional fouls.)
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Chuck, the original post said that the player stopped the ball from rolling OOB by placing her foot on it. She then rolled the ball
backward to herself. Now, I certainly don't have a Ph.D in anything, but that kinda implies to me that force had to be applied to the ball to get it to do those little tricks--stop it first and then give it a complete change of direction. Simply touching the ball would also affect it-even minutely- by applying a l'il bit of friction, wouldn't it? Isn't the over-all effect to actually control the ball with the foot, no matter what?
Btw, I thought the "intentional" part was a given.