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Old Tue Mar 01, 2005, 03:11pm
ChuckElias ChuckElias is offline
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Does "placing" one's foot on top of the ball really equal "striking" it?
Yes.
Short jokes aside, you conveniently forgot to answer the second question in my post. I agree that the spirit of the rule is to prevent using the feet to control the ball. However, without a specific definition to the contrary, touching is not striking.

(A specific definition to the contrary would be like the definition of "intentional" as it pertains to intentional fouls.)
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