using the foot question

[ChuckElias]

Originally posted by Jurassic Referee

Yes.

Short jokes aside, you conveniently forgot to answer the second question in my post. I agree that the spirit of the rule is to prevent using the feet to control the ball. However, without a specific definition to the contrary, touching is not striking.

(A specific definition to the contrary would be like the definition of "intentional" as it pertains to intentional fouls.)