Passing on a foul????

[jebPE]

I agree (I think). If B1 had LGP against A1 and there was no foul, the only logical conclusion is that A1 left the court of his own volition to get around B1 (assuming B1 had LGP), thus breaching the rule.

This was not the case, though. A1 was quicker than B1, and made it to the spot faster than B1.

The rule makes sense to me (although I prefer the NCAA penalty...violation rather than a T).

In light of the way the officials were calling the game that night (they appeared to be letting rough play slide a bit), I would've preferred a no-call (inaccurate, but CONSISTENTLY inaccurate).

A1 made a good play on the pass, B1 hustled to try and get the ball back (thus contacting A1), but A1 had passed B1 once he came back in bounds and was on a fast break.

But again, ultimately, I prefer the game to be called as accurately as possible.

After all, IMO, the purpose of any sporting activity is not just to win, but to learn sportsmanship.

If one takes the position that it is OK to let some rules slide, then ultimately all rules will slide. Then you could have coaches that encourage their teams to break the rules until the officials say something about it, which could help lead to a society that encourages winning over sportsmanship.

But, I digress.

As I said in my first post, I am not envious of your job.