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Old Wed Dec 15, 2004, 08:38pm
jebPE jebPE is offline
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Join Date: Dec 2004
Posts: 21
Thanks for the welcome, JR.

I agree B1 should have been called for the foul.

The tricky part here is "of his own volition".

Is A1 legally out of bounds as a result of contact with B1?

Is A1 allowed to come back on the court and resume the dribble (assuming the ball is never out of bounds).

It seems to be a moot point if a foul should have been called.

I don't think the layup scenario would be relevant, because A1 would not be the first person to touch the ball after a made basket.

Regardless, thanks for the input.

(FYI, I'm a rules buff...something my golf buddies REALLY appreciate. )
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