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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 07:57am
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Team A taking the ball out on the sideline
A1 attempts to put the ball in play.
A2 and A3 sets a pick along the sidelines for A4
A4 is guarded very closely and briefly runs out of bounds to avoid the closely guarded B4 player and the ball is successfully passed into A4 back safely inbounds.

I watched this play 4 times and nothing was called. To me this is a violation having two offensive players out of bounds once the ball was put in play.

Then I got thinking, if this same play occurred after a made basket would it still be a violation? A rule citation would be helpful (NFHS)

thanks
Stew in Va
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 08:03am
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You are correct, it sounds like this should be a violation.

After a made basket, I'd say no violation, since the throwing team may have as many players out of bounds (up to 5 of course) as they'd like.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 08:40am
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Violation. Rule 9-2-12 . . . No teammate of the thrower shall be out of bounds after a designated-spot throw-in begins.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 08:44am
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Violation. Rule 9-2-12 . . . No teammate of the thrower shall be out of bounds after a designated-spot throw-in begins.
Thanks for the quote and information- So on a throw in after a made basket the play would have been legal. Ok two years into this and I'm always asking questions- so much to know- so little time.
Glad I got this one right
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 08:54am
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Quote:
Originally posted by stewcall
So on a throw in after a made basket the play would have been legal.

Yup. You got it.

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Ok two years into this and I'm always asking questions
Hey, if you stop asking, then you get yourself into trouble.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:14am
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Why not a technical foul as per rule 10-3-3- "A player shall not leave the court for an unauthorized reason....". Isn't it a T under that rule as soon as soon as A4 steps OOB? Of course, isn't it also a violation under Rule 9-2-12 as soon as A4 steps OOB also? Which rule has precedent over the other, and why?

Discuss amongst yourselves.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:23am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why not a technical foul as per rule 10-3-3- "A player shall not leave the court for an unauthorized reason....". Isn't it a T under that rule as soon as soon as A4 steps OOB?

Sigh. Stir that pot. . .

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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:24am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why not a technical foul as per rule 10-3-3- "A player shall not leave the court for an unauthorized reason....". Isn't it a T under that rule as soon as soon as A4 steps OOB? Of course, isn't it also a violation under Rule 9-2-12 as soon as A4 steps OOB also? Which rule has precedent over the other, and why?

Discuss amongst yourselves.

I'd go with the violation - it's more specific to this situation.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:35am
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why not a technical foul as per rule 10-3-3- "A player shall not leave the court for an unauthorized reason....". Isn't it a T under that rule as soon as soon as A4 steps OOB?

Sigh. Stir that pot. . .

Quote:
Discuss amongst yourselves.
The Holy Roman Empire was neither holy, nor Roman, nor an Empire. Discuss.

What? That's a legitimate question. Why would the rule that you cited take precedence over the rule I cited? And vice/versa?

Seriously!!
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:36am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Mark Dexter
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why not a technical foul as per rule 10-3-3- "A player shall not leave the court for an unauthorized reason....". Isn't it a T under that rule as soon as soon as A4 steps OOB? Of course, isn't it also a violation under Rule 9-2-12 as soon as A4 steps OOB also? Which rule has precedent over the other, and why?
I'd go with the violation - it's more specific to this situation.
Why is it more "specific"?
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:52am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
What? That's a legitimate question. Why would the rule that you cited take precedence over the rule I cited? And vice/versa?

Seriously!!
Seriously? B/c the rule I cited deals specifically with the throw-in. If you were supposed to give a T for that infraction, 9-2-12 wouldn't need to be in the book.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 09:53am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why is it more "specific"? [/B][/QUOTE]
See above.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 10:13am
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
What? That's a legitimate question. Why would the rule that you cited take precedence over the rule I cited? And vice/versa?

Seriously!!
Seriously? B/c the rule I cited deals specifically with the throw-in. If you were supposed to give a T for that infraction, 9-2-12 wouldn't need to be in the book.
Then why is 10-3-3 in the book?
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 10:14am
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Quote:
Originally posted by ChuckElias
Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Why is it more "specific"?
See above. [/B][/QUOTE]See above.
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Old Wed Apr 21, 2004, 10:21am
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Quote:
Originally posted by Jurassic Referee
Then why is 10-3-3 in the book?
To deal with non-throw-in situations, or intentionally deceitful situations (running out of the gym, through the hall and back in the other door).
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