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Old Thu Mar 04, 2004, 12:41am
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Foncal, that is interesting logic, but the violation still takes precendence because the violation occured prior to B having the ability to run the baseline. Based on your logic, B should just grab the ball after the first FT and start running the baseline to inbound the ball. I'm sure you know this and were just trying to get a rise out of everyone.
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