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throw-in
The only time you can run the baseline is after a MADE basket. Even if there is a timeout in between the throw in or not, but the basket has to be made, and no fouls or violations can occur between.
The violation of the free throw voids the team being able to run the base line. |
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Foncal,
Your post isn't entirely so. If the thrower is allowed to run the endline and the defending team is guilty of a violation, or foul if not in the bonus, the thrower is still allowed to run the endline. Rule 7-5-7. I just wanted to clarify that for BigGref. Everything else is as the posters say. |
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Thanks for correcting me, but if what you say it true, then if the shooter, A1 of the free throw in the earlier case made the first... wouldn't team B then be allowed to run the baseline. Because the second shot didn't count because of a violation?
Thanks! |
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Foncal, that is interesting logic, but the violation still takes precendence because the violation occured prior to B having the ability to run the baseline. Based on your logic, B should just grab the ball after the first FT and start running the baseline to inbound the ball. I'm sure you know this and were just trying to get a rise out of everyone.
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My job is a decision-making job, and as a result, I make a lot of decisions." --George W. Bush |
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Well the logic I wsa using would be better explained throughout this example. For this example I would say that team B can NOT run the baseline.
Player A1 shoots and makes the first of two free-throws. A1 then airballs the second one. Tweet(Violation) team B gets the ball under the basket. Now, since team A had made the prior basket (and there was a violation on the shot) does team B get to run the baseline? I say no, because of the rule and the logic that team A still missed a shot. Therefore there was no made basket before team B was set to imbound. BUT in the case of an offensive lane violation-- the shot taken by team A shouln't even count as an attempt, since there is an offensive lane violation and the shot it discarded. Now since the shot never took place and A1 did make the first one, can team B now run the baseline. I still say no, but this did come up in a game and is a good question to put out there. Take care! |
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7-5-12: After a free-throw violation by the throwing team, provided there are no additional free-throws to be awarded, any opponent of the throwing team shall make the throw-in from the out-of-bounds spot nearest the violation.
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I swear, Gus, you'd argue with a possum. It'd be easier than arguing with you, Woodrow. Lonesome Dove |
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Re: throw-in
Quote:
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The comment for the rule change 7-5-7 in the 2001-2002 Rules Book was: "THROW-IN PROVISION AFTER A SCORE (7-5-7): To prohibit the team that just scored from gaining an advantage, this change permits a team to run the end line on a throw-in when either a foul or violation is committed by the scoring team immediately following a made basket or on the ensuing throw-in. This change only applies when the spot for the throw-in would be at the end line."
This means that the foul or violation occurs while the ball is dead after the goal or DURING the throw-in which follows. Note that violating as the ball is touched on the throw-in, such as a kick, is considered to be during the throw-in. In the case of violating on the second free-throw attempt, the team is not violating during a dead ball or during the throw-in, so this rule doesn't apply. And as rainmaker said, this also applies after an awarded goal. |
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