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Well the logic I wsa using would be better explained throughout this example. For this example I would say that team B can NOT run the baseline.
Player A1 shoots and makes the first of two free-throws. A1 then airballs the second one. Tweet(Violation) team B gets the ball under the basket. Now, since team A had made the prior basket (and there was a violation on the shot) does team B get to run the baseline?
I say no, because of the rule and the logic that team A still missed a shot. Therefore there was no made basket before team B was set to imbound.
BUT in the case of an offensive lane violation-- the shot taken by team A shouln't even count as an attempt, since there is an offensive lane violation and the shot it discarded. Now since the shot never took place and A1 did make the first one, can team B now run the baseline. I still say no, but this did come up in a game and is a good question to put out there.
Take care!
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