Rolling the Ball Inbounds

PGCougar · #1 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 02:48pm

Can the ball touch the floor behind the baseline as it is being rolled out onto the floor? Where is the rule referenced? Thanks.

footlocker · #2 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 02:52pm

if a player releases the ball the throw n begins. If the ball touches out of bounds without being legally touched by a player, then violation on the throwing team, and the throw in ends.

Other teams ball.

Jurassic Referee · #3 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 03:12pm

Quote:

Originally posted by footlocker
if a player releases the ball the throw n begins. If the ball touches out of bounds without being legally touched by a player, then violation on the throwing team, and the throw in ends.

Other teams ball.

Rule 9-2-2 is the cite to back this up.

Mregor · #4 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 03:37pm

If they are rolling the ball, there must not be any pressure and it is most likely with very little time on the clock. It'd have to be extremely obvious for me to blow a whistle on this.

Mregor

PublicBJ · #5 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 06:00pm

Quote:

Originally posted by footlocker
if a player releases the ball the throw n begins. If the ball touches out of bounds without being legally touched by a player, then violation on the throwing team, and the throw in ends.

Other teams ball.

So, using this logic, after a made basket, player bounce passes the ball to another player out of bounds on the end line. (Which is a legal play, if you take the bouncing out of it.) So you call a violation because the ball made contact with out of bounds?

Other situation: Some schools have TONS of room off of the court. Rule says the player can be as far away from the out of bounds line, as long as they're in their approx. designated spot lane. If they bounce pass it in, but the bounce occurs out of bounds, you're going to call this a violation?

Let's be even more ridiculous: Player dribbles (bounces) the ball out of bounds once before making the throw-in. Violation?

Isn't the real intent of the rule being an in-bounds pass that goes out of bounds untouched?

Adam · #6 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 06:17pm

The case where A1 legally throws the ball to A2 on an endline throw in isn't applicable. When going to the court, the ball must go directly to the court. A bounce pass between out of bounds teammates is not the same thing.
Yes, if the player backs up 8 feet on a spot throw in, and the ball bounces OOB before it gets onto the court, yes it's a violation. Not rediculous. It's the rule.

Jurassic Referee · #7 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 06:29pm

Quote:

Originally posted by PublicBJ

Quote:

Originally posted by footlocker
if a player releases the ball the throw n begins. If the ball touches out of bounds without being legally touched by a player, then violation on the throwing team, and the throw in ends.

Other teams ball.

So, using this logic, after a made basket, player bounce passes the ball to another player out of bounds on the end line. (Which is a legal play, if you take the bouncing out of it.) So you call a violation because the ball made contact with out of bounds?

Footlocker's example is a throw-in. Your example is a pass. Two different rules for two completely different situations. Footlocker is right, by rule!

Mike Burns · #8 (**permalink**) Wed Feb 11, 2004, 07:50pm

Quote:

Originally posted by PublicBJ
So, using this logic, after a made basket, player bounce passes the ball to another player out of bounds on the end line. (Which is a legal play, if you take the bouncing out of it.) So you call a violation because the ball made contact with out of bounds? [/B]

This is a pass not a throw in. No violation.

Quote:

Originally posted by PublicBJ Other situation: Some schools have TONS of room off of the court. Rule says the player can be as far away from the out of bounds line, as long as they're in their approx. designated spot lane. If they bounce pass it in, but the bounce occurs out of bounds, you're going to call this a violation?[/B]

Yes.

rainmaker · #9 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 12:32am

So just to clarify...

If the in-bounder dribbles oob a couple of times it's legal, as long as she catches it again and the pass toward the inbounds floor doesn't touch oob. Correct?

rcwilco · #10 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 12:51am

yes.
The player throwing the ball in may bounce or dribble the ball. No violation.
If the throwin is after a successful try (made basket) then a team mate may be OOB as well. The two players may pass, including bouncing, the ball between them. No violation.
However when the ball is being thron in it must go directly on to the court and may not touch OOB before touching in bounds on the court.
See: illustrated book p. 58
rules book 7-5-7 p.50

Nevadaref · #11 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 08:09am

Quote:

Originally posted by PublicBJ

So, using this logic, after a made basket, player bounce passes the ball to another player out of bounds on the end line. (Which is a legal play, if you take the bouncing out of it.) So you call a violation because the ball made contact with out of bounds?

Other situation: Some schools have TONS of room off of the court. Rule says the player can be as far away from the out of bounds line, as long as they're in their approx. designated spot lane. If they bounce pass it in, but the bounce occurs out of bounds, you're going to call this a violation?

Let's be even more ridiculous: Player dribbles (bounces) the ball out of bounds once before making the throw-in. Violation?

Isn't the real intent of the rule being an in-bounds pass that goes out of bounds untouched?

BJ,
Although this comment by footlocker, "if a player releases the ball the throw n begins," is not totally correct, it does work for designated-spot throw-ins.

And now that it is you that has been shown to be clearly incorrect. Hopefully, in the future, you will not be so sardonic in your posts.

[Edited by Nevadaref on Feb 12th, 2004 at 07:16 AM]

PublicBJ · #12 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 11:51am

Quote:

Originally posted by Nevadaref

And now that it is you that has been shown to be clearly incorrect. Hopefully, in the future, you will not be so sardonic in your posts.

The purpose of my post was to cause discussion. The purpose of yours?

My point being, even if this is a rule and we should all call our games according to the rules, we're going to make that call when the intent is clearly for a throw-in that goes out of bounds? That's a gutsy call (using the original poster's situation of rolling a throw-in), and a difficult one to sell to the coach when he goes off on you.

rgaudreau · #13 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 04:41pm

Sorry, but I'm not touching this one. I've got nothing.

Don't go looking for trouble!

Jurassic Referee · #14 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 04:57pm

Quote:

Originally posted by rgaudreau
Sorry, but I'm not touching this one. I've got nothing.

Don't go looking for trouble!

Does that mean that you think that officials should ignore violations if they think that someone will complain about the call?

RefRx · #15 (**permalink**) Thu Feb 12, 2004, 05:01pm

My point being, even if this is a rule and we should all call our games according to the rules, we're going to make that call when the intent is clearly for a throw-in that goes out of bounds? That's a gutsy call (using the original poster's situation of rolling a throw-in), and a difficult one to sell to the coach when he goes off on you. [/B][/QUOTE]

The call is a violation. That may or may not be a gutsy call depending on your ability, and credibility as an official. I would be more concerned with the call being a correct one than with selling the call to a coach. How would you sell a non-call to an opposing coach who wants to know why it was not called? I am not sure where the statement "the intent is clearly for a throw-in that goes out of bounds?" originates? This situation starts OOB.