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NO! NO! NO! You have to change the rule's words to get to that conclusion. There is no part of the rule that refers to an offensive player in the backcourt touching a ball that, until that touch, had frontcourt status. The offensive player was NOT the last to touch the ball with frontcourt status BEFORE it returned to the backcourt. "Before" is a very key word that you're skipping and the author of the interpretation also skipped. When the offense touches the ball, it gains backcourt status. But, who was the last to touch it BEFORE the touch that gave the ball backcourt status....the defender. Thus, no violation. That is the rule and has been for decades. The interpretation, and your explanation above are just fundamentally wrong.
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