Part 2 test

[Adam]

Originally Posted by Camron Rust

Yes, I know it is defined. But, that is the end of it. None of the sub-parts of that rule apply during a dead ball. They either explicitly mention live ball or are in relation to a play (which also doesn't happen during a dead ball). It lists no examples of acts that occur during a dead ball. We all take it to be excessive contact during a dead ball, but why does it explicitly mention live ball if that is the case?

I think the implication in the rules is that you call a simple technical foul when contact occurs that would have been an intentional foul during a live ball. There is never a case where you need to call an intentional technical as it means absolutely nothing.

That explanation fits the question.

Your logic, while sound, doesn't make this a better question. We constantly tell newer officials not to read too much into the questions on the test. Hell, that's normally a good test taking strategy in any situation (I just took a state licensing test and that was the biggest advice I was given during the preparation for the test).

This question, however, demands that you read a lot into it that's not there. I'd be curious to see which answer the NFHS deems correct.

[Rich]

Originally Posted by Adam

Your logic, while sound, doesn't make this a better question. We constantly tell newer officials not to read too much into the questions on the test. Hell, that's normally a good test taking strategy in any situation (I just took a state licensing test and that was the biggest advice I was given during the preparation for the test).

This question, however, demands that you read a lot into it that's not there. I'd be curious to see which answer the NFHS deems correct.

The answer follows Cameron's logic, however it doesn't make the question any better.