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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Mar 13, 2015, 11:12pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
Has the runner LEGALLY touched second?
For the sake of the play, he touches 2nd and is on second after the ball becomes dead. Same as if he was between 2nd and 3rd as the ball became dead and retouched 2nd. But, we would not allow him to retouch 1st because of rule 8.2.5.

He had NOT passed 2nd returning to 1st at time ball went dead.
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Old Sat Mar 14, 2015, 05:30am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by thumpferee View Post
For the sake of the play, he touches 2nd and is on second after the ball becomes dead. Same as if he was between 2nd and 3rd as the ball became dead and retouched 2nd. But, we would not allow him to retouch 1st because of rule 8.2.5.

He had NOT passed 2nd returning to 1st at time ball went dead.
The point of my question was that if he left first early, he can't LEGALLY touch second for the purpose of these awards (especially in such an obvious situation as this). That's what the case play is telling you.

(I will grant that if R1 leaves a beat early, and then rounds second and the ball is thrown out of play, I'll award home and wait for the appeal at first.)

And, OBR might be different -- the references have changed a bit over the years.
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Old Sun Mar 15, 2015, 06:00am
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He didn't legally touch any base other than 1st, but we can't award that way. He's assumed to have legally touched 2nd until the appeal. At that point, he's out no matter what you awarded him. The runner is in a no win situation because he can't retouch more than one base on the dead ball.
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Old Sun Mar 15, 2015, 10:06am
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Thanks!
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