BOT question

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by Publius

Wrong in all three cases.

What you said is true if the runner is FORCED to advance when the batter becomes a B/R, but R2 isn't forced in any of those situations.

R1, R3, one out. Improper batter B7 receives a base on balls, on which ball 4 is a wild pitch. R1 advances to 2nd and R3 advances to the plate. Defense makes a proper appeal. B7 is out, R1 returns, R3 scores.

R1, R3, one out. Improper batter B7 swings and misses at an uncaught third strike, upon which R1 advances to 2nd and R3 advances to the plate. Defense makes a proper appeal. B7 is out, R1 remains at 2nd, R3 scores.

Wrong player out, and the rest is all wrong too. No advances that occur after B becomes BR stand. R3 does not score in either case.

(And now that I say that, the back of my head is tickling me that this might be ruleset specific... where are those books now.... )

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

Wrong player out, and the rest is all wrong too. No advances that occur after B becomes BR stand. R3 does not score in either case.

(And now that I say that, the back of my head is tickling me that this might be ruleset specific... where are those books now.... )

Here's an email response from Jim Paronto (NCAA) on how to handle it, at least there (the question relates to improper batter, ball4/wild pitch):


You are correct. The advance by R2 was on a wild pitch, which just happened to be ball four. Had it been ball three, he still would have advanced. Leave him at second, call the improper batter out and get the correct hitter to the plate.





Thanks for asking.


Jim

[dash_riprock]

Jim has the wrong guy out as well. Typo?

[Dave Reed]

In NFHS, when the improper batter becomes a runner or is put out, and the BOOT is appealed, all runner return to TOP base. 7.1.2 Penalty 2 (from a 2009 rule book)

In OBR, "nullify any advance or score made because of a ball batted by the improper batter or because of the improper batter’s advance to first base on a hit, an error, a base on balls, a hit batter or otherwise." (6.07, and my bolding for emphasis)

[Rita C]

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

Jim has the wrong guy out as well. Typo?

Hope so.

[Publius]

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

...this might be ruleset specific... where are those books now....

yep. When I'm interpreting from memory on a non-ruleset-specific play, FED is my last source. So, apologies to those I said were "wrong"; we're just coming from different places.

Originally Posted by dash_riprock

Jim has the wrong guy out as well. Typo?

I didn't make a typo; I typed exactly what I intended. I was just careless and wrong. I know who is supposed to be called out, as evidenced by post #29.

I'm not sure what Paronto's excuse is.

In the R1, R3 play I gave, I learned that when determining whether R1 advanced because of the BB or because of the WP, go with the BB (and bring R1 back) because it doesn't require any conjecture. It sounds like Paronto might want a more nuanced approach. That is, if R3 scored, it is safe to assume that R1 would have advanced irrespective of the pitch being ball four (leave R1 at 2nd). I'll have to get that clarified.