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  #31 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 31, 2013, 03:09pm
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Originally Posted by umpjim View Post
So, in OBR only, in the R1, R3 scenario, you would score the run if R3 scored before the INT because of the intervening play ruling?
No. I'd return R3 based on 7.09(f), especially: In no event may bases be run or runs scored because of such action by a runner.

(unless I'm misreading the play)

Besides, the 2.00 Interference comment specifically says "intervening play at the plate"
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  #32 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 31, 2013, 03:19pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
No. I'd return R3 based on 7.09(f), especially: In no event may bases be run or runs scored because of such action by a runner.

(unless I'm misreading the play)

Besides, the 2.00 Interference comment specifically says "intervening play at the plate"
Isn't 7.09f about a batted ball and a thrown ball is 6.something m which doesn't advise of runner placement so you use 2.00(a)?
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  #33 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 31, 2013, 03:28pm
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Originally Posted by umpjim View Post
Isn't 7.09f about a batted ball and a thrown ball is 6.something m which doesn't advise of runner placement so you use 2.00(a)?
That works too.
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  #34 (permalink)  
Old Sat Nov 02, 2013, 01:39am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by umpjim View Post
There is always a tag attempt or the like on any double play. I believe the intervening play ruling only applies to the running lane interference example.
Which is what I was referring to. And the intervening play has to be on R3
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