WS obstruction

[brainbrian]

Does it matter at all that the ball hit Craig when he slides into third base as you can see in the video at 2:02?

Obstruction call gives Cards win over Red Sox in World Series Game 3 - MLB News | FOX Sports on MSN

[Illini_Ref]

If a runner is obstructed going back to a base that he had legally touched like in a run-down, is he awarded that base or the next one? Rule says he gets at least one base in advance of the one last legally touched. That doesn't seem right in the case of a runner returning.

[jicecone]

Originally Posted by Illini_Ref

If a runner is obstructed going back to a base that he had legally touched like in a run-down, is he awarded that base or the next one? Rule says he gets at least one base in advance of the one last legally touched. That doesn't seem right in the case of a runner returning.

7.06b
If no play is being made on the obstructed runner, the play shall proceed until no
further action is possible. The umpire shall then call “Time” and impose such
penalties, if any, as in his judgment will nullify the act of obstruction.

The runner was not Obstructed while a play was being made on him. He was obstructed while running the bases. Nor was he was obstructed going back to the base.

[Illini_Ref]

Originally Posted by jicecone

7.06b
If no play is being made on the obstructed runner, the play shall proceed until no
further action is possible. The umpire shall then call “Time” and impose such
penalties, if any, as in his judgment will nullify the act of obstruction.

The runner was not Obstructed while a play was being made on him. He was obstructed while running the bases. Nor was he was obstructed going back to the base.

That makes sense.

I know he wasn't going back, I was just wondering about the OBR ruling for an obstructed runner while returning to a base already touched. The rule says he gets a base in advance of the one he last touched. Would this be an exception?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by Illini_Ref

If a runner is obstructed going back to a base that he had legally touched like in a run-down, is he awarded that base or the next one? Rule says he gets at least one base in advance of the one last legally touched. That doesn't seem right in the case of a runner returning.

It's right. Otherwise you reward the defense and punish the offense when the infraction was by the defense.

[jicecone]

Originally Posted by brainbrian

Does it matter at all that the ball hit Craig when he slides into third base as you can see in the video at 2:02?

Obstruction call gives Cards win over Red Sox in World Series Game 3 - MLB News | FOX Sports on MSN

Not unless he intentionally attempted to interfere with F5 making the catch.

[brainbrian]

Originally Posted by jicecone

Not unless he intentionally attempted to interfere with F5 making the catch.

Thank you.