MLB Rules Quiz and article

[DavidOhsie]

How does the answer to #7 square with 4.09(b):

When the winning run is scored in the last half-inning of a regulation game, or in
the last half of an extra inning, as the result of a base on balls, hit batter or any other play with the bases full which forces the runner on third to advance, the umpire shall not declare the game ended until the runner forced to advance from third has touched home base and the batter-runner has touched first base.

[Rich]

Originally Posted by DavidOhsie

How does the answer to #7 square with 4.09(b):

When the winning run is scored in the last half-inning of a regulation game, or in
the last half of an extra inning, as the result of a base on balls, hit batter or any other play with the bases full which forces the runner on third to advance, the umpire shall not declare the game ended until the runner forced to advance from third has touched home base and the batter-runner has touched first base.

Batted ball versus a base award. It's that simple of a distinction.

[Dave Reed]

Originally Posted by Rich

Batted ball versus a base award. It's that simple of a distinction.

Um, no. 4.09(b) applies to batted balls also. However, it doesn't apply to question 7 because no runs scored. Additionally, though it doesn't matter, the test question doesn't say it was the last half inning of a regulation game or extra-inning game.

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by DavidOhsie

How does the answer to #7 square with 4.09(b):

When the winning run is scored in the last half-inning of a regulation game, or in
the last half of an extra inning, as the result of a base on balls, hit batter or any other play with the bases full which forces the runner on third to advance, the umpire shall not declare the game ended until the runner forced to advance from third has touched home base and the batter-runner has touched first base.

It wasn't the last inning, so the rule doesn't apply at all.

If it had been the last inning, then the runs still wouldn't score after the appeal.

Either way, the runs score until there's an appeal, and then the sciore are "reversed."

[DavidOhsie]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

It wasn't the last inning, so the rule doesn't apply at all.

If it had been the last inning, then the runs still wouldn't score after the appeal.

Either way, the runs score until there's an appeal, and then the sciore are "reversed."

OK, now I'm more confused .

I understand that the rule only talks about the last inning, but is that the only time it applies? So if there is a 2-out bases loaded walk in the bottom of the first where R1 and R2 fail to advance, then the run doesn't score (if there is an appeal), but if the same happens in the bottom of the ninth, then the run does score (if there is an appeal)?

[bob jenkins]

if it's not the last inning, then "play" (or "the game") is still going on. R1 and R2 will advance on a walk. If for some reason, they don't, then, yes, get an out on appeal and cancel the run.

If it's the last inning, then R1 and R2 "don't mean anything", so under OBR (and NCAA, but not under FED), there's no need for them to advance (on a walk) to have the winning run score.

[DavidOhsie]

Originally Posted by bob jenkins

if it's not the last inning, then "play" (or "the game") is still going on. R1 and R2 will advance on a walk. If for some reason, they don't, then, yes, get an out on appeal and cancel the run.

If it's the last inning, then R1 and R2 "don't mean anything", so under OBR (and NCAA, but not under FED), there's no need for them to advance (on a walk) to have the winning run score.

Originally Posted by MD Longhorn

The rule you referenced is an exception to the norm due to the inning ending before it normally would (which can only happen in the home at bat of a final inning)... So yes, the exception can only apply in the home half of a final inning.

Can you imagine it ever actually happening that a 2-out bases loaded walk in any other situation would result in the runner from 1st or 2nd leaving the field? No - they go to their bases and we keep playing. Why would they leave?

Makes perfect sense. Last question: why is a 7.05(a) homerun ("that goes out of the playing field") different? (If there is a reason).

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by DavidOhsie

Makes perfect sense. Last question: why is a 7.05(a) homerun ("that goes out of the playing field") different? (If there is a reason).

It depends on what is meant by "or any other play" in 4.09(b)

Some would say that a home run qualifies and that as long as R3 and BR advance, the game is over.

Others (see Rich in post 10) say only a "non-batted ball award" can meet that definition and that the R1 and R2 must advance and touch.

[Dave Reed]

Originally Posted by DavidOhsie

Makes perfect sense. Last question: why is a 7.05(a) homerun ("that goes out of the playing field") different? (If there is a reason).

Game ending home runs are treated differently than all other walk-offs. Here's 4.11(c):
If the home team scores the winning run in its half of the ninth inning (or its half of an extra inning after a tie), the game ends immediately when the winning run is scored. EXCEPTION: If the last batter in a game hits a home run out of the playing field, the batter-runner and all runners on base are permitted to score, in accordance with the base-running rules, and the game ends when the batter-runner touches home plate.

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by DavidOhsie

OK, now I'm more confused .

I understand that the rule only talks about the last inning, but is that the only time it applies? So if there is a 2-out bases loaded walk in the bottom of the first where R1 and R2 fail to advance, then the run doesn't score (if there is an appeal), but if the same happens in the bottom of the ninth, then the run does score (if there is an appeal)?

The rule you referenced is an exception to the norm due to the inning ending before it normally would (which can only happen in the home at bat of a final inning)... So yes, the exception can only apply in the home half of a final inning.

Can you imagine it ever actually happening that a 2-out bases loaded walk in any other situation would result in the runner from 1st or 2nd leaving the field? No - they go to their bases and we keep playing. Why would they leave?