Appeals question

[MD Longhorn]

Originally Posted by David Emerling

Really?

Play: R2 at 2nd base. Routine base hit into the outfield that scores R2. BR stops at 1st. The defense wants to appeal that R2 missed 3rd base. The ball is still live. Although they can throw the ball directly to 3rd, the pitcher steps onto the rubber then, comes set then, without stepping off, he throws directly to 3rd base.

Would that not be considered a balk for throwing to an unoccupied base?

A pitcher can throw to an unoccupied base for the purposes of making "a play". I have always been taught that an appeal is not "a play", however.

If all I've said above is true (and I'm not 100% sure it is) - then, it would seem, that the pitcher does have to step off or be liable for a balk; at least when it involves throwing directly from the rubber to an unoccupied base.

OBR 8.05(d) - If there is a runner, or runners, it is a balk when the pitcher, while touching his plate, throws, or feints a throw to an unoccupied base, except for the purpose of making a play.

Why would an appeal not be a play?