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Runner and Fielder collide
R2 and R3 1 out Infield in. Ball hit to SS. Runner from 2nd base and SS have a mild collision. SS then throws the ball away at 1B and 2 runs score. Is it a delayed dead ball or immediate dead ball. We ruled runner from 2nd out and put runner back at 3B. No runs scored on the play.Correct?
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Out and runner placement were correct. B-R should be at first.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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Was the "mild collision" a result of F6 attempting to make a tag play on R2?
Was the ball fielded cleanly or did a bobble cause F6 to move in R2's path? These conditions could change things a little. Absent any factors like these, i think you got it right . |
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I think I have a charge. I try to call charges anytime I can.
Peace
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Let us get into "Good Trouble." ----------------------------------------------------------- Charles Michael “Mick” Chambers (1947-2010) |
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Sounds like the dumb butt cost his team a run. In FED I would have gotten two outs here possibly.
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I have nipples, Greg. Can you milk me? |
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I wish there was a LIKE Button!
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Matthew 15:14, 1 Corinthians 1:23-25 |
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HUH? Where, pray tell, was the "likely" double play absent the INT? F6 played on the BR at first base, which means R3 didn't try to score initially.
If I'm the offensive coach & you call a DP, you can just go ahead & dump me. Then I'm going to get my money's worth! |
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Like I said, due to R2's mistake. If he's close enough to collide with F6, he's put himself in position for a tag out followed by the throw to 1B. That's a cardinal sin!
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In OBR it has to be willfil and deliberate attempt (and pretty obvious) to break it up. In FED it only needs to br possible.
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Rich Ives Different does not equate to wrong |
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Agreed. These conditions could change things A LOT!
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Have fun in the parking lot.
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I have nipples, Greg. Can you milk me? |
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R2, R3 with the infield playing in. Ground ball to F6 who checks the runners & throws to F3 for the out on the BR. That's what's likely without the INT. Where's the other out going to come from? |
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