Runner and Fielder collide

[onetime1]

R2 and R3 1 out Infield in. Ball hit to SS. Runner from 2nd base and SS have a mild collision. SS then throws the ball away at 1B and 2 runs score. Is it a delayed dead ball or immediate dead ball. We ruled runner from 2nd out and put runner back at 3B. No runs scored on the play.Correct?

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by onetime1

R2 and R3 1 out Infield in. Ball hit to SS. Runner from 2nd base and SS have a mild collision. SS then throws the ball away at 1B and 2 runs score. Is it a delayed dead ball or immediate dead ball. We ruled runner from 2nd out and put runner back at 3B. No runs scored on the play.Correct?

It's immediate.

Out and runner placement were correct.

B-R should be at first.

[ozzy6900]

It's Interference - ball is dead - no advancements can take place

[rbmartin]

Originally Posted by onetime1

Runner from 2nd base and SS have a mild collision.

Was the "mild collision" a result of F6 attempting to make a tag play on R2?
Was the ball fielded cleanly or did a bobble cause F6 to move in R2's path?
These conditions could change things a little.

Absent any factors like these, i think you got it right .

[Steven Tyler]

Infield playing in, and R2 interferes with F6. What the heck was R2 thinking?

[celebur]

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler

Infield playing in, and R2 interferes with F6. What the heck was R2 thinking?

Breaking up a double play made possible by his baserunning error?

[JRutledge]

I think I have a charge. I try to call charges anytime I can.

Peace

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by JRutledge

I think I have a charge. I try to call charges anytime I can.

Peace

I wish there was a LIKE Button!

[Steven Tyler]

Originally Posted by celebur

Breaking up a double play made possible by his baserunning error?

R2 & R3 in the OP. Where was the double play happening?

Sounds like the dumb butt cost his team a run.

In FED I would have gotten two outs here possibly.

[CT1]

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler

In FED I would have gotten two outs here possibly.

HUH? Where, pray tell, was the "likely" double play absent the INT? F6 played on the BR at first base, which means R3 didn't try to score initially.

If I'm the offensive coach & you call a DP, you can just go ahead & dump me. Then I'm going to get my money's worth!

[celebur]

Originally Posted by Steven Tyler

R2 & R3 in the OP. Where was the double play happening?

Like I said, due to R2's mistake. If he's close enough to collide with F6, he's put himself in position for a tag out followed by the throw to 1B. That's a cardinal sin!

Sounds like the dumb butt cost his team a run.

He needs to learn better bartering skills; it's not a good idea to trade an out at 1B for an out past 2B.

[Rich Ives]

Originally Posted by celebur

Breaking up a double play made possible by his baserunning error?

To get a DP:

In OBR it has to be willfil and deliberate attempt (and pretty obvious) to break it up.

In FED it only needs to br possible.

[MikeStrybel]

Originally Posted by rbmartin

Was the "mild collision" a result of F6 attempting to make a tag play on R2?
Was the ball fielded cleanly or did a bobble cause F6 to move in R2's path?
These conditions could change things a little.

Absent any factors like these, i think you got it right .

Agreed. These conditions could change things A LOT!