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Fri Oct 14, 2011, 09:50pm
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I believe clevbrown's fundamental misunderstanding is that he does not understand that, in this play, 2B is considered an "occupied base" because that was the base R2 was entitled to when F1 engaged the rubber.
Even though R2 had "taken off" to 3B at the time of F1's feint to 2B, for purposes of the rule, 2B is still considered an "occupied base". JM
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