It came to me in a dream

[Rufus]

No, really. This didn't actually happen in a game but I did dream it and want to be sure I get it right in case it actually happens one day.

As a reminder, I coach 12U travel baseball and play under a mish-mash of rules depending on the weekend tournament we're playing in.

Situation is R1 and R3 with infield drawn inside the baseline to try and cut down R3 at home. R1 is stealing with the pitch and the BR hits a line shot that hits R1 as they're running toward 2B. Ball rebounds off R1 but by the time F4 picks it up R1 is now R2, BR is R1, and R3 has scored. This is where I woke up.

In reading Fed 8-4K is says:

Runner is out when is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any infielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play.

Since no other infielder had a play (they were playing in and the ball struck R1 behind them) and it passed an infielder would this be a play on?

Yes, I'm also aware I need to find other activities to liven up my dream-world. Right now this is what I'm dealing with however!

[jdmara]

Originally Posted by Rufus

No, really. This didn't actually happen in a game but I did dream it and want to be sure I get it right in case it actually happens one day.

As a reminder, I coach 12U travel baseball and play under a mish-mash of rules depending on the weekend tournament we're playing in.

Situation is R1 and R3 with infield drawn inside the baseline to try and cut down R3 at home. R1 is stealing with the pitch and the BR hits a line shot that hits R1 as they're running toward 2B. Ball rebounds off R1 but by the time F4 picks it up R1 is now R2, BR is R1, and R3 has scored. This is where I woke up.

In reading Fed 8-4K is says:

Runner is out when is contacted by a fair batted ball before it touches an infielder, or after it passes any infielder, except the pitcher, and the umpire is convinced that another infielder has a play.

Since no other infielder had a play (they were playing in and the ball struck R1 behind them) and it passed an infielder would this be a play on?

Yes, I'm also aware I need to find other activities to liven up my dream-world. Right now this is what I'm dealing with however!

Play on. Or more than likely, fix my partner's brain fart because he kills the play

-Josh

[ozzy6900]

I suggest that you eat more pizza and drink more beer before bed so you dream of more important things - like BEER!

[UmpJM]

Rufus,

In FED it's "live ball, play the bounce".

Under OBR, the ball is dead, the R1 is out, the BR is awarded 1B, and the R3 is back on 3B.

JM

[Rich Ives]

What JM said . . .

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Rich Ives

What JM said . . .

Yep -- and NCAA is the same as FED, here.

[Rufus]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

Rufus,

In FED it's "live ball, play the bounce".

Under OBR, the ball is dead, the R1 is out, the BR is awarded 1B, and the R3 is back on 3B.

JM

JM
Thanks for this. I'm looking at an (older) copy of OBR 7.08 and found this:

Any runner is out when—He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;

Since in my situation R1 was hit after it passed the drawn-in infielders would he still be out under OBR? Not trying to abush, just trying to understand. Thanks.

MBCrowder - noted and thanks for the clarification

[bob jenkins]

Originally Posted by Rufus

JM
Thanks for this. I'm looking at an (older) copy of OBR 7.08 and found this:

Any runner is out when—He is touched by a fair ball in fair territory before the ball has touched or passed an infielder. The ball is dead and no runner may score, nor runners advance, except runners forced to advance. EXCEPTION: If a runner is touching his base when touched by an Infield Fly, he is not out, although the batter is out;

Since in my situation R1 was hit after it passed the drawn-in infielders would he still be out under OBR? Not trying to abush, just trying to understand. Thanks.

MBCrowder - noted and thanks for the clarification

"passed an infielder" in this instance means "goes immediately by or through the infielder." IOW, if the runner could reasonably expect the fielder to make a play, he's not out just because the fielder didn't and the runner was (nearly) directly behind the fielder.

but, if the ball goes between the two fielders, then the runner can see the ball and is expected to avoid it.