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Old Mon May 09, 2011, 12:54pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ump Rube View Post
Maybe I am missing something here, but I have never heard talk of a gap between the feet in referencing calling a balk.

Anyone else, have thoughts on this? Or is Wakefield missing something?
If the feet are in a straight line toward home before them move, and there's then a "gap" between them when viewed by the umpire after the move, then the pitcher gained distance and direction (assuming the pivot foot doesn't move).
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Old Mon May 09, 2011, 01:40pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bob jenkins View Post
If the feet are in a straight line toward home before them move, and there's then a "gap" between them when viewed by the umpire after the move, then the pitcher gained distance and direction (assuming the pivot foot doesn't move).
True but in this case, Wakefield gained distance toward HP which is where the balk came in, I believe. He went as much or more toward HP than 3B IMO. So, the gap he is referencing is of no defense for him going toward HP as well. I have a balk.
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Old Mon May 09, 2011, 06:10pm
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IMO, he stepped toward home, and in no fashion stepped toward 3rd. It was clearly a balk, everyone stop piling on Hernandez, and we move on.

DG, your argument that no pitcher's natural delivery includes such a step toward home is totally illogical and irrelevant. Wakefield stepped toward home, and not 3rd, and from where R1 was leading off, I am sure it looked like he was going to the plate.

There is legal deception, but this crossed over into illegal deception.
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