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Old Fri Jan 14, 2011, 01:29am
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"...For what it's worth, there is no contradiction..." between 2.5.1 (E) and 2.16.1 (D)

So, in a FED game accoprding to 2.5.1 (E), if the batter unintentionally drops his bat into the pathway of his batted ball and the moving bat touches the ball in fair territory, an umpire should signal FAIR at that moment, even if the ball continues rolling untouched into foul territory (and stops) after deflecting off the bat?

If that's the case, then I will have to change my understanding of this particular case of FED fair/foul...
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Old Fri Jan 14, 2011, 09:41am
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". . . drops the bat and it unintentionally hits the ball . . ."

It's hard to believe that even Fed wouldn't catch that particular absurdity.

I used to do Fed but always assumed it followed OBR, and in the rules meetings nobody ever mentioned this significant difference. I'm glad I never had to deal with a case of bat hitting ball in fair territory.
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Old Fri Jan 14, 2011, 12:07pm
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I fixed this a long time ago;

"Coach, in my opinion, the batter did not intentionally cause interference. The ball is foul/fair. Let's play ball."

I could never be bothered with the BS about deciding what the intent of an inanimate object was, so I just assumed innocent until proven guilty on the batter (an animate object?).
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Old Sat Jan 15, 2011, 10:30pm
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What??????

Quote:
Originally Posted by ozzy6900 View Post
I fixed this a long time ago;

"Coach, in my opinion, the batter did not intentionally cause interference. The ball is foul/fair. Let's play ball."

I could never be bothered with the BS about deciding what the intent of an inanimate object was, so I just assumed innocent until proven guilty on the batter (an animate object?).
Ozzy, you mean you didn't ask the bat about it's intent? I am surprised at you!
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