Pitching from the stretch

[jicecone]

Originally Posted by UmpTTS43

No he cannot. This is considered a set position. During the stretch, his pitching hand must be at his side or behind him.

OBR "Preparatory to coming to a set position, the pitcher SHALL, have his one hand on his side; from this position he SHALL go to his set position as defined in Rule 8.01 (b) without interuption and in one continuous motion"

"The pitcher following his stretch MUST........b. come to a complete stop."

I don't have a balk here, as long as that pause is really a complete stop.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by jicecone

OBR "Preparatory to coming to a set position, the pitcher SHALL, have his one hand on his side; from this position he SHALL go to his set position as defined in Rule 8.01 (b) without interuption and in one continuous motion"

"The pitcher following his stretch MUST........b. come to a complete stop."

I don't have a balk here, as long as that pause is really a complete stop.

It sounds to me like he came set, then got his signs, then came set again. How is this not a balk?

[jicecone]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

It sounds to me like he came set, then got his signs, then came set again. How is this not a balk?

This is exactly what was happening. It was a young pitcher and the umpires did not call a balk. However there was some talk in the stands about wether this was actually legal or not.

OK Steve, you want to call it a balk, its a balk. He came to a complete stop and evidently deceived NO ONE.

[DG]

Double set = balk. If he is on the rubber, with hands together and completely stopped he is set. If he then moves hands and stops again he has double set. It is irrelevant when he got the sign. The balk is the double set.

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by jicecone

OK Steve, you want to call it a balk, its a balk. He came to a complete stop and evidently deceived NO ONE.

He came set and then made a motion naturally associated with his pitch and failed to make such delivery. Balk OBR 8.05 (a)

We are not required to determine if anyone was deceived, only to enforce the balk rules.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by MrUmpire

He came set and then made a motion naturally associated with his pitch and failed to make such delivery. Balk OBR 8.05 (a)

We are not required to determine if anyone was deceived, only to enforce the balk rules.

+1

The criterion of determining whether F1's intent is deception (mentioned in OBR 8.05 but not in FED) is to be employed ONLY when the umpire is in doubt about whether F1 has balked.

In this case, the umpire should be in no doubt whatsoever. Therefore F1's intent is irrelevant.

[ozzy6900]

I agree with the balk call here. Once F1 brings his hands together and stops, he is set. If he stares in for the sign, then moves his hands closer to his body, we have a double set.

However, if F1 brings his hands together as in the OP and then leans in for the sign, you must call the balk right then and there. F1 has come set, then made movement that was not delivering the pitch or attempting to make a play. In this case, do not allow F1 to go any farther without balking him.

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by ozzy6900

I agree with the balk call here. Once F1 brings his hands together and stops, he is set. If he stares in for the sign, then moves his hands closer to his body, we have a double set.

However, if F1 brings his hands together as in the OP and then leans in for the sign, you must call the balk right then and there. F1 has come set, then made movement that was not delivering the pitch or attempting to make a play. In this case, do not allow F1 to go any farther without balking him.

Ozzy, there is no separate balk rule about a "double set." Both of your examples are enforced under the same rule..8.05(a) and in the pro circles are known as "started and stopped".