Foul pop

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

I completely agree that the umpire must judge the batter's action intentional in order to call interference. That's why I said, "... or did he just stand there and watch it hit him, even though he could have easily avoided it?" - which to me means that he intentionally let it hit him.

"Intentional allowing" is not part of the rules. Compare INT with a thrown ball. R1 batted ball to F6, who starts a 6-4-3 DP. If R1 stops and "intentionally allows" the throw to hit him, are you calling INT? I'm not.

You're not getting this batter for INT because he "intentionally allowed" the ball to hit him, you're getting him for failing to move. And that's not what the rule says.