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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Tue Sep 29, 2009, 09:24pm
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Retouching after dead ball.

I can't believe that I haven't had this come up in 9 years...

Rule 8-2-9 Says:"Each runner shall touch his base after the ball becomes dead."

What is the penalty if R1 on 1B doesn't touch after a foul ball. If F1 isn't holding him on and he stays about 10 feet off the base. Is that just a "Hey, you gotta touch up R1!"? I couldn't find a penalty in the FED rule book for violating this rule.
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Old Tue Sep 29, 2009, 09:36pm
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Cool

Rogersump,

There is no penalty, it is simply a condition for putting the ball back in play.

Nobody cares if they actually touch the base or not.

They just have to return to the "vicinity" of the base, near enough that, in your judgment, they are not gaining an unintended advantage.

JM
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Old Tue Sep 29, 2009, 09:39pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RogersUmp View Post
I can't believe that I haven't had this come up in 9 years...

Rule 8-2-9 Says:"Each runner shall touch his base after the ball becomes dead."

What is the penalty if R1 on 1B doesn't touch after a foul ball. If F1 isn't holding him on and he stays about 10 feet off the base. Is that just a "Hey, you gotta touch up R1!"? I couldn't find a penalty in the FED rule book for violating this rule.
R1 should return and touch. If he does not no penalty. We should not put ball in play unti R1 has touched or is close enough so that he is not in jeopardy of successful play on him.
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Old Wed Sep 30, 2009, 07:48am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by RogersUmp View Post
I can't believe that I haven't had this come up in 9 years...

Rule 8-2-9 Says:"Each runner shall touch his base after the ball becomes dead."

What is the penalty if R1 on 1B doesn't touch after a foul ball. If F1 isn't holding him on and he stays about 10 feet off the base. Is that just a "Hey, you gotta touch up R1!"? I couldn't find a penalty in the FED rule book for violating this rule.
The rule is there because without it:

1) The offense would stand 1' from the next base and have an easy "steal" as soon as the ball is put in play,

2) The defense would get the ball in play when the runner was 45' from either base and get an easy out.

So, put the ball in play when both teams have indicated that they are happy with the runner's position.
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Old Wed Sep 30, 2009, 02:56pm
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[QUOTE=bob jenkins;628008]The rule is there because without it:

1) The offense would stand 1' from the next base and have an easy "steal" as soon as the ball is put in play,

If I remember correctly this rule was put in place during the Ty Cobb era..Cobb would do just that...
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Old Wed Sep 30, 2009, 10:50pm
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I thought it was Dick Groat, much later of course.

Whoever it was, I don't think he got away with it.
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Old Wed Sep 30, 2009, 11:04pm
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I thought I read it was Maz... we are on to something here with this Pirate thing though.
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  #8 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 01, 2009, 07:32am
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Ahem,

It WAS Don Hoak that was credited with causing this rule change.
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  #9 (permalink)  
Old Thu Oct 01, 2009, 05:45pm
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Yeah after a foul ball, they would go stand 1 foot away from the next base and declare that as his "lead." The other posters have cleared it up quite nicely.
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