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-   -   Retouching after dead ball. (https://forum.officiating.com/baseball/54815-retouching-after-dead-ball.html)

RogersUmp Tue Sep 29, 2009 09:24pm

Retouching after dead ball.
 
I can't believe that I haven't had this come up in 9 years...

Rule 8-2-9 Says:"Each runner shall touch his base after the ball becomes dead."

What is the penalty if R1 on 1B doesn't touch after a foul ball. If F1 isn't holding him on and he stays about 10 feet off the base. Is that just a "Hey, you gotta touch up R1!"? I couldn't find a penalty in the FED rule book for violating this rule.

UmpJM Tue Sep 29, 2009 09:36pm

Rogersump,

There is no penalty, it is simply a condition for putting the ball back in play.

Nobody cares if they actually touch the base or not.

They just have to return to the "vicinity" of the base, near enough that, in your judgment, they are not gaining an unintended advantage.

JM

DG Tue Sep 29, 2009 09:39pm

Quote:

Originally Posted by RogersUmp (Post 627948)
I can't believe that I haven't had this come up in 9 years...

Rule 8-2-9 Says:"Each runner shall touch his base after the ball becomes dead."

What is the penalty if R1 on 1B doesn't touch after a foul ball. If F1 isn't holding him on and he stays about 10 feet off the base. Is that just a "Hey, you gotta touch up R1!"? I couldn't find a penalty in the FED rule book for violating this rule.

R1 should return and touch. If he does not no penalty. We should not put ball in play unti R1 has touched or is close enough so that he is not in jeopardy of successful play on him.

bob jenkins Wed Sep 30, 2009 07:48am

Quote:

Originally Posted by RogersUmp (Post 627948)
I can't believe that I haven't had this come up in 9 years...

Rule 8-2-9 Says:"Each runner shall touch his base after the ball becomes dead."

What is the penalty if R1 on 1B doesn't touch after a foul ball. If F1 isn't holding him on and he stays about 10 feet off the base. Is that just a "Hey, you gotta touch up R1!"? I couldn't find a penalty in the FED rule book for violating this rule.

The rule is there because without it:

1) The offense would stand 1' from the next base and have an easy "steal" as soon as the ball is put in play,

2) The defense would get the ball in play when the runner was 45' from either base and get an easy out.

So, put the ball in play when both teams have indicated that they are happy with the runner's position.

griff901c Wed Sep 30, 2009 02:56pm

[QUOTE=bob jenkins;628008]The rule is there because without it:

1) The offense would stand 1' from the next base and have an easy "steal" as soon as the ball is put in play,

If I remember correctly this rule was put in place during the Ty Cobb era..Cobb would do just that...

greymule Wed Sep 30, 2009 10:50pm

I thought it was Dick Groat, much later of course.

Whoever it was, I don't think he got away with it.

TussAgee11 Wed Sep 30, 2009 11:04pm

I thought I read it was Maz... we are on to something here with this Pirate thing though.

Tim C Thu Oct 01, 2009 07:32am

Ahem,
 
It WAS Don Hoak that was credited with causing this rule change.

johnnyg08 Thu Oct 01, 2009 05:45pm

Yeah after a foul ball, they would go stand 1 foot away from the next base and declare that as his "lead." The other posters have cleared it up quite nicely.


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