Batter picking up the ball

[PeteBooth]

[QUOTE]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

Yes.

[COLOR="Navy"]6.06 (c) He interferes with the catcher’s fielding or throwing by stepping out of the batter’s box or making any other movement that hinders the catcher’s play at home base. EXCEPTION: Batter is not out if any runner attempting to advance is put out, or if runner trying to score is called out for batter’s interference.

Steve Rule 6.06(c) does not apply in this situation

From the OP

The batter takes ball four as the pitch is in the dirt and deflects off the catchers shin guard a little ways down the first base line.

Since the ball got passed F2 B1 is no longer "classified" as a batter but an offensive teammate.

Therefore, the rule governing the situation described in the OP is OBR rule 3.15 Comment

Rule 3.15 Comment: The question of intentional or unintentional interference shall be decided on the basis of the person’s action. If, however, he kicks the ball or picks it up or pushes it, that is considered intentional interference, regardless of what his thought may have been.

Pete Booth

[bob jenkins]

[QUOTE=PeteBooth;610961]

Steve Rule 6.06(c) does not apply in this situation

From the OP



Since the ball got passed F2 B1 is no longer "classified" as a batter but an offensive teammate.

Therefore, the rule governing the situation described in the OP is OBR rule 3.15 Comment




Pete Booth

Sorry, Pete, but 3.15 specifically does not apply to offensive team members participating in the game (meaning batters or runners).

And, even if it did apply, while it's interference, that just means the ball is dead and the umpire imposes whatever bases or outs he wants.

I'd go to 2.00-Interference "...impedes ... any fielder attempting to make a play."

I can read the OP in two ways -- the other runners were sufficiently far enough off the base that there was a play, or the action was (reasonably) relaxed and there wasn't a play. The former is interference (and an out); the other is "weak interference" and put everyone back.

Only the OP can decide, sinc he was there.

[chitownvet]

[QUOTE=bob jenkins;610964]

Originally Posted by PeteBooth

Sorry, Pete, but 3.15 specifically does not apply to offensive team members participating in the game (meaning batters or runners).

And, even if it did apply, while it's interference, that just means the ball is dead and the umpire imposes whatever bases or outs he wants.

I'd go to 2.00-Interference "...impedes ... any fielder attempting to make a play."

I can read the OP in two ways -- the other runners were sufficiently far enough off the base that there was a play, or the action was (reasonably) relaxed and there wasn't a play. The former is interference (and an out); the other is "weak interference" and put everyone back.

Only the OP can decide, sinc he was there.

Yes, that was the source of my later concern. It was the catchers actions that initially swayed me to call interference and hence the batter/runner out. He rushed to retrieve the ball and as he arrived the ball was handled by the batter/runner. As I said, the runners were NOT heading back to their respective bases, but were not making a mad dash for the next base either. I felt the catcher may have attempted a play, and therefore made the call as I did.

[PeteBooth]

[QUOTE][QUOTE=bob jenkins;610964]

Originally Posted by PeteBooth

Sorry, Pete, but 3.15 specifically does not apply to offensive team members participating in the game (meaning batters or runners).

Bob in a way it does

From the Comment section

PLAY: Batter hits ball to shortstop, who fields ball but throws wild past first baseman. The offensive coach at first base, to avoid being hit by the ball, falls to the ground and the first baseman on his way to retrieve the wild thrown ball, runs into the coach; the batter-runner finally ends up on third base. The question is asked whether the umpire should call interference on the part of the coach. This would be up to the judgment of the umpire and if the umpire felt that the coach did all he could to avoid interfering with the play, no interference need be called. If it appeared to the umpire that the coach was obviously just making it appear he was trying not to interfere, the umpire should rule interference.

IMO, a base coach is an offensive team member. If we put a "twist" on the aforementioned play and say F6 throws the ball wild to F3, the offensive coach picks up the wild throw then we would rule interference.

This OP sounds similar. We had F2 chasing after a loose ball and the on-deck batter (similar to a first base coach) picked up the ball. I think Papa C has a similar type case play in his BRD about the on deck batter except if I recall the on deck batter did not pick up a loose ball as in this OP but collided with F2 chasing after a loose ball. The call was interference.

The on deck batter is not supposed to pick up a live ball.

Pete Booth

[GA Umpire]

I believe 7.08(b) applies here. The BR intentionally interfered with a thrown ball. It does not say if there is a play or not. And, BR is a runner since it was ball 4. So, BR is out for intentional INT on a thrown ball. Even though a pitched ball is treated differently in some cases, I don't believe this is one of them.

So, I still have BR out but for violating the first part of 7.08(b) regardless if there was a play or not on anyone else. And, if it wasn't ball 4, then he would be out for BI, rule 6.06(c) if there was a potential play anywhere(this is where I think weak INT would come in). Basically, he is out for doing it under one of these rules. And even if no runners are on base, he can still be out in this situation since he is a runner intentionally INT with a thrown ball although I won't make that call. He needs to just learn to leave the ball alone.

[johnnyg08]

okay, so lets take this a step further. R3 takes off and is going to be dead at home...B/R picks up the ball, would we ever have a situation like this (similar to OP) where R3 is out or do we still call B/R out and send R3 back to 3B?

[GA Umpire]

Originally Posted by johnnyg08

okay, so lets take this a step further. R3 takes off and is going to be dead at home...B/R picks up the ball, would we ever have a situation like this (similar to OP) where R3 is out or do we still call B/R out and send R3 back to 3B?

I am going to guess only if the batter hasn't become a runner yet. Then, BI applies for rule 7.09(c) if less than 2 outs. Simply b/c in OBR, the runner has to intentionally INT with the possibility of a DP to be made. In this case, no DP can be made since the batter was walked.

So, I would have INT on BR with him out and R3 goes back to 3B.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by GA Umpire

I am going to guess only if the batter hasn't become a runner yet. Then, BI applies for rule 7.09(c) if less than 2 outs. Simply b/c in OBR, the runner has to intentionally INT with the possibility of a DP to be made. In this case, no DP can be made since the batter was walked.

So, I would have INT on BR with him out and R3 goes back to 3B.

In the OP, there were two outs, remember.

[GA Umpire]

There doesn't have to be a play for intentional INT (7.08(b)) to be called. I would agree to not make an out call unless there is the possibility of a play somewhere. Which chi clarified there possibly could have been one at 3B. Saves headaches.

But, with the intentional INT, I believe an umpire is justified to make an out call even if there is no play. This would definitely stop that stupid gesture quickly.

No play = no out.
Play = out on someone.

[mbyron]

Originally Posted by GA Umpire

There doesn't have to be a play for intentional INT (7.08(b)) to be called.

There must be SOME kind of play SOMEWHERE, or the defense hasn't been hindered.