Sectional 1-0 controversy

[SAump]

BRD 95 FED: A runner awarded first is out if he is not on base before the time of the next pitch, he reaches his bench or dugout, or the infielders have left the diamond. (8.1.1b)
OBR (4.09 Penalty.)

How long was the celebration?

[Dave Reed]

Originally Posted by SAump

BRD 95 FED: A runner awarded first is out if he is not on base before the time of the next pitch, he reaches his bench or dugout, or the infielders have left the diamond. (8.1.1b)
OBR (4.09 Penalty.)

However, if you read 8.1.1 Situation B, and the rule it cites, you'll see that the casebook play and rule actually refer to a dropped third strike. Regardless of of what CC wrote, there is, I believe, a big difference between an awarded base (a walk) and a D3K. I don't think 8.1.1B is applicable in the OP situation.

[umpjong]

I think Rule 2 sec 4 art. 4 sums it up.

The batter must go immediately to first base before time out can be called

[MrUmpire]

Originally Posted by umpjong

I think Rule 2 sec 4 art. 4 sums it up.

The batter must go immediately to first base before time out can be called

That certainly sums up when time can be called.

[umpjong]

Originally Posted by MrUmpire

That certainly sums up when time can be called.

So the 2nd baseman should start yelling time, so then he could invoke this rule? Geez, give it up... The citation is in the definition of a walk, and to conclude that the only time you must immediately go to first base is when someone wants time is lets say remarkable. In your interpretation he may sit down and have a sandwich and then call his mother if he likes and then if and only when he is ready he may go to first. What time parameters would you place on him?

I'm just telling you that without seeing the play, it sure sounds like he made no effort to go to the bag until he saw something amiss. For me this is to late, and like I stated earlier, he better not have much of a delay getting there.

[Rich]

Originally Posted by umpjong

So the 2nd baseman should start yelling time, so then he could invoke this rule? Geez, give it up... The citation is in the definition of a walk, and to conclude that the only time you must immediately go to first base is when someone wants time is lets say remarkable. In your interpretation he may sit down and have a sandwich and then call his mother if he likes and then if and only when he is ready he may go to first. What time parameters would you place on him?

I'm just telling you that without seeing the play, it sure sounds like he made no effort to go to the bag until he saw something amiss. For me this is to late, and like I stated earlier, he better not have much of a delay getting there.

The pitcher threw Ball 4. I got all day. There is no way that, absent leaving the field, I would ever call this. I would wait until the defense started complaining, tipped off the runners, and they went to the next base. Then the game would be over and we would leave.

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by umpjong

I think Rule 2 sec 4 art. 4 sums it up.

The batter must go immediately to first base before time out can be called

All you have done here is quote that TIME cannot be called before the awarded BR gets to 1st base. That was not the case here! As RichMSN stated, "I got all day!".

The mistake was that the BR assumed that the ball was dead - a mistake on his part. All the umpires have to do is wait in position until the BR either gets to his base or obviously abandons all attempt to get there (which is more than likely what is going to happen in a situation such as this).