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Old Thu May 14, 2009, 07:16pm
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Originally Posted by w_sohl View Post
Wow, I envision this with a coach who knows the rule (former umpire turned darkside). R3 scores before R1 is out, coach realizes and succesfully gets his kids to not make a play on R1 so that he isn't retired. Now, we put the runners back on 1st and 3rd and the batter is out #2. That would be fun to explain to the O coach.
Now, if I'm the O coach (also a former umpire,) I argue that the defense was not attempting to make a play, given the intentional attempt not to get the out, and without an attempted play, there is no interference.
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Old Thu May 14, 2009, 08:53pm
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Matt is correct here. They must attempt a play in order to get BI
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Old Thu May 14, 2009, 10:18pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by johnnyg08 View Post
Matt is correct here. They must attempt a play in order to get BI
Didn't they attempt a play when they threw down to get R1 in a rundown? And besides, that would be way to much of a coincidence to have two coaches that smart on the same game.
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Old Thu May 14, 2009, 10:54pm
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Originally Posted by w_sohl View Post
Didn't they attempt a play when they threw down to get R1 in a rundown? And besides, that would be way to much of a coincidence to have two coaches that smart on the same game.
If R1 gets in a rundown and is initially pursued (edit: poor choice of words; see DG's post above) in an attempt for an out, then that would be a play, but that's not what you stated--you posited that the defense would deliberately give up the stolen base. How could the defense do that and still have a play (absent a great acting job, that is?)

Last edited by Matt; Thu May 14, 2009 at 10:56pm.
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Old Thu May 14, 2009, 11:04pm
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Matt View Post
If R1 gets in a rundown and is initially pursued (edit: poor choice of words; see DG's post above) in an attempt for an out, then that would be a play, but that's not what you stated--you posited that the defense would deliberately give up the stolen base. How could the defense do that and still have a play (absent a great acting job, that is?)
That is what I meant, they are initially making a play, but realizing that the run is scoring they pull up. But I do guess that as soon as he initial play is unsuccessful we would call dead ball. Is that true? If so it makes the entire scenario impossible.
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