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  #1 (permalink)  
Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 10:43am
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Unusual play - Ruling/Interpretation Question

I had a play occur the other day in a Varsity HS game that I was coaching that was unusual, at least based on my experience. The umpires struggled with the call and I, quite frankly, wasn't sure either what the call should be.

We have a runner on second, two outs, 3-2 count on the hitter. Hitter rips a high line drive down the first baseline. The first baseman, who was playing behind the bag, jumps in an attempt to catch the ball. He catches a piece of the ball directing it up further into the air and toward out of play. He scrambles for the ball and dives in another attempt to catch the ball. Once again it hits off the end of his glove and the ball lands out of play. Ball never came in contact with the ground until it was out of play.

What's the ruling on this play? Thanks in advance for your feedback.

Last edited by newmdref; Sun Apr 19, 2009 at 06:03am.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 10:51am
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Fair or Foul?

Where was F-3 when he FIRST touched the ball?

If in Fair ... Fair ball, ground rule double.

If in Foul Territory ... Foul Ball
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 10:52am
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Was the ball fair or foul when he first touched it?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 10:52am
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The ball is foul or fair depending upon the position of the ball when it first touches the fielder's glove. The position of the fielder is not relevant. If the ball was over fair territory when it tipped off the glove it is a fair ball. If the ball was over foul territory it is a foul ball. If fair two base award from time of pitch for ball going out of play.

Two others beat me to the punch.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 10:57am
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Sorry guys made an assumption there. Both the player and the ball were in fair play when the ball was initially touched
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:00am
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Then as stated above, this is a fair batted ball that has gone out of play and all runners are awarded two bases from time of pitch.

BTW. What did the umpires finally rule?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:03am
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Hitter was placed on second. Runner on second was placed at home (scored).
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:07am
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so they got it right?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:15am
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Yes they did in the end but they initially were going to place runners at 1st and 3rd. My discussion with them centered mainly around the runner at second that should be placed at home since we were running on the pitchers first movement (3-2, 2outs) and the runner reached third prior to the play being over/ball knocked out of play. In the end they talked about it and made the correct call. I will have to let them know next game they did a good job on that play.

Last edited by newmdref; Fri Apr 17, 2009 at 12:22pm.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:17am
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you do understand that your reason is not why your runner was allowed to score though right?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:28am
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Yes I do. But in a moment when I'm not sure myself what the ruling should be, I've got to challange you guys with some "Reasonable" argument that might initiate a second thought in your mind or a second discussion. This second discussion is what unltimately brought about the correct call, in this case. Doesn't always work that way though.

Last edited by newmdref; Fri Apr 17, 2009 at 11:31am.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:30am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by martynva View Post
If in Fair ... Fair ball, ground rule double.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Armadillo_Blue View Post
Then as stated above, this is a fair batted ball that has gone out of play and all runners are awarded two bases from time of pitch.
Disagree.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:35am
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{this post deleted by me as being obviated by further discussion--I should have refreshed before posting}

Last edited by celebur; Fri Apr 17, 2009 at 11:40am.
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:37am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dash_riprock View Post
Disagree.
Disagree with whom? And with what?
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Old Fri Apr 17, 2009, 11:37am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by dash_riprock View Post
Disagree.
Ok, then tell us you think it is time of deflection.
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