Learned 2 New Things Last Night

[tibear]

Originally Posted by mattmets

One serious, one not so much.

Cal Ripken league game, uses OBR with some modifications.

1) R1 and R3, pitcher in stretch. He comes straight up with the leg, then wheels and throws to his F6, who is playing at his position. I balk F1 for throwing to an unoccupied base. Apparently this has been an issue before, because defensive head coach comes out with rule in hand, where there is a rule comment that a pitcher may throw to an unoccupied base with R1 and R3, regardless of whether the runners are in motion. So I agree with the coach, but enforce the balk on the fact that F1 threw to F6 at his position, not at second base. Correct?

This comment doesn't exist in OBR, does it? I've never heard of the rule, and the only thing I can find is 8.05(d), which supports my call. The pitcher did not become a fielder, nor was R1 advancing at TOP.

Found a website: http://www.macroweb.com/ibrules/bqpg0105.htm which has a similar situation along with their response:

Runner on second base; one out. The pitcher tries a pick-off, but no-one covers the bag. Rather than hold the ball, the pitcher throws to the shortstop, who is minding his own business at his regular fielding position. What is the correct ruling?
Your Answer: Balk. This is considered throwing to an unoccupied base
Correct Answer: Nothing. This is perfectly legal
Explanation: The pitcher is not required to throw to second base once he makes a step in that direction. Only to first base a throw to the bag is mandatory after stepping to that base. However, rule 8.05h may be invoked if the umpire judges that this act is done by the pitcher in order to delay the game. An umpire may call a balk for any unnecessary delay of the game by the pitcher.

It appears that according this website, if your throwing to a fielder that is not at a base it is perfectly legal.