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Old Thu May 01, 2008, 10:56am
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Maybe I'm misunderstanding your sentence here, but are you saying that with runners on first and third and two outs, if R3 hits the plate before R1 is tagged for out #3 before reaching second that R3's run counts? If that's what you're saying, it's incorrect. R1's out is a force out regardless of how it's made.

There is indeed a misunderstanding. With runners on 1B and 3B and 2 outs (as you describe above), the third out on R1 at 2B is of course a force out, and when R3 touches the plate is irrelevant. The run does not score.

Note that the play I described earlier began with runners at 1B and 3B and one out; the second out came on F3's tag of 1B. After the second out removes the force on R1, an out on R1 is of course a time play, unless R1 misses 2B, in which case the appeal at 2B is a force play even though R1 was not forced at the time he missed 2B. I admit it's a strange difference from OBR and Fed.
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Old Thu May 01, 2008, 11:09pm
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In Fed, would the run count?
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Old Fri May 02, 2008, 09:55am
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In Fed, would the run count?

In Fed and OBR, whether or not a sustained appeal for a missed base is a force out is determined by whether the runner was forced at the time he missed the bag. In the play described in my last post, when R1 missed 2B, the BR had already been put out, so R1 was not forced at the time of the miss. Therefore, the out is not a force out but a time play, and the run would count.
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Old Fri May 02, 2008, 11:20am
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Quote:
Originally Posted by greymule
In Fed, would the run count?

In Fed and OBR, whether or not a sustained appeal for a missed base is a force out is determined by whether the runner was forced at the time he missed the bag. In the play described in my last post, when R1 missed 2B, the BR had already been put out, so R1 was not forced at the time of the miss. Therefore, the out is not a force out but a time play, and the run would count.
Thank you for clearing that up greymule!

-Josh
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