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Originally Posted by newump
R1, R3. 2 out. BR hits a single. R3 scores. R2 goes to third but misses 2nd. defense properly appeals and R2 is declared out for the 3rd out. does the run count?? is the out of R2 considered a force play since he never legally reached.
i know if we have R3 only with 2 outs and BR hits a double but misses first and then a proper appeal at first is completed. the run does not count. does this same theory apply in my above situation.
thanks.
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R3's run does not count. Third out of inning was made by R1, who was forced at second.
One time, way back when I was a teeny rattus, I won a protest on a similar call.
Ace