85% missed this one

[ManInBlue]

I first thought "true" - but this is essentially the exact verbiage from the rule book with "touched" changed to "caught."

Didn't seem like a trick question to me. Simply testing the knowledge of the rules verbiage.

"If a fair or foul batted ball is caught, other than a foul tip, each base runner shall touch his base after the batted ball has been touched by a fielder." - my emphasis - Rule 8-2-4

[waltjp]

I agree with Tim and thought of touch vs. catch as soon as I read the question.

[dash_riprock]

This is not a trick question at all. It is a basic rule. It is not that uncommon to see a juggled catch, or even a touch by one fielder followed by a catch by another. 85% missing it doesn't speak well of the class.

[D-Man]

The whole test process is a joke. Take it closed book, with someone watching for cheats, and make the score count for something.

What, are we sad we didn't get 100?

D

[SAump]

To emphasize first touched by suggesting a ball that is juggled and then caught, or first touched and then caught by another player would be fair. This is a BS question because almost all fly balls are first touched immediately when caught. The two events occur simultaneously as suggested by 85% of the umpires. It appears that 15% of the readers failed to realize this possible scenario.

[UmpJM]

SAUmp,

Since part of the requirement for a legal catch is to demonstrate voluntary & intentional release, I would say that it is by definition impossible for the catch and the first touch to occur simultaneously.

JM

[SAump]

Originally Posted by UmpJM (nee CoachJM)

SAUmp,

Since part of the requirement for a legal catch is to demonstrate voluntary & intentional release, I would say that it is by definition impossible for the catch and the first touch to occur simultaneously.

JM

Please flip a ball up in the air and catch it and then let me know if the catch doesn't immediately take place up on first touch, second touch or third touch. Gloves are designed to secure posession upon first touch.

"If the fielder has made the catch and drops the ball while in the act of making a throw following the catch, the ball shall be adjudged to have been caught."

The runner is not obligated to wait that long. He can leave the base as soon as the catch was made. Or should I say, before the fielder can legally demonstrate voluntary & intentional release.

Note: This situation doen't include rare events such as dropping the ball before securing posession, juggling a catch, or tipping the ball from one glove into another.

[BigUmp56]

Originally Posted by SAump

The legal requirement to demonstrate voluntary and intentional release requires another hand to enter the glove to remove the ball shortly after the catch has already been made.

.

Really? I'm not sure where that's written...........


Tim.

[SAump]

This situation includes rare events such as dropping the ball before securing posession, juggling a catch, or tipping the ball from one glove into another.

A catch is legal if the ball is finally held by any fielder, even though juggled, or held by another fielder before it touches the ground.

Runners may leave their bases the instant the first fielder touches the ball.

A dependent statement may misrepresent other situations when the independent condition is not present. This valid point is made on behalf of 85% of the umpires who failed to connect "touch" within the proper independent statement. This dependent clause only makes sense when the independent statement is included within such a question. Thus, whoever wrote the BS question misled the majority of the umpires who chose the wrong initial independent condition.