coaches interference

[_Bruno_]

sit : R1,R2 0 outs,
pitcher steps off and throws to F3 but the throw is high. F3 chases the ball but trips over the 1stbase coach and the umpire thinks that the 1stbase coach made F3 intentionaly trip. whats the ruling ? any runner out or no advancing on the runners ?

[BigUmp56]

Originally Posted by _Bruno_

sit : R1,R2 0 outs,
pitcher steps off and throws to F3 but the throw is high. F3 chases the ball but trips over the 1stbase coach and the umpire thinks that the 1stbase coach made F3 intentionaly trip. whats the ruling ? any runner out or no advancing on the runners ?

R1 is out and R2 is returned. Although it's not very often you'll see a base coach called for interference on an errant throw.



Tim.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by _Bruno_

sit : R1,R2 0 outs,
pitcher steps off and throws to F3 but the throw is high. F3 chases the ball but trips over the 1stbase coach and the umpire thinks that the 1stbase coach made F3 intentionaly trip. whats the ruling ? any runner out or no advancing on the runners ?

See Rule 3.15 PLAY. If you rule that the coach intentionally tripped F3, it is interference, and that runner is out.

Depending on the circumstances of the interference, I may also consider running the assistant coach for unsportsmanlike conduct in accordance with Rule 9.01(d).

[ozzy6900]

Originally Posted by _Bruno_

sit : R1,R2 0 outs,
pitcher steps off and throws to F3 but the throw is high. F3 chases the ball but trips over the 1stbase coach and the umpire thinks that the 1stbase coach made F3 intentionaly trip. whats the ruling ? any runner out or no advancing on the runners ?

Are you really serious about this play? In over 25 years of officiating, I have yet to see a coach intentionally interfere with the defense. I usually see the coaches doing a quick-step-two-step to get the hell out of the way!

Smells of third world!

[_Bruno_]

rule 3.15 was the reason why i asked this question. i dont know why to call
the br out but send him back to 2ndbase.

[aceholleran]

Originally Posted by _Bruno_

rule 3.15 was the reason why i asked this question. i dont know why to call
the br out but send him back to 2ndbase.

WHAT!?

ace

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by _Bruno_

rule 3.15 was the reason why i asked this question. i dont know why to call
the br out but send him back to 2ndbase.

First off, "br" can be easily mistaken for "batter-runner," which is what BR stands for. There was no batter-runner in your situation.

You send R2 back to 2nd, because he can't advance on the interference.

You call R1 out because of the coach's interference, because a play was being made on him.

You eject the coach for being an idiot, as he was the first coach you ever saw intentionally interfere with a fielder.

SYJHTU.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by aceholleran

WHAT!?

ace

Ace, you are to be commended for your show of restraint in only using a size 6 font, when the post was fully deserving of a size 7. I salute you, sir.

[charliej47]

I'm sure somewhere sometime some coach must have intentionally interfere with a fielder. In 45+ years of umpiring I have never seen it or heard of it.

I have seen stupid coaches do stupid things that caused interference, but I have never seen one do it with intent.

[DG]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

First off, "br" can be easily mistaken for "batter-runner," which is what BR stands for. There was no batter-runner in your situation.

You send R2 back to 2nd, because he can't advance on the interference.

You call R1 out because of the coach's interference, because a play was being made on him.

You eject the coach for being an idiot, as he was the first coach you ever saw intentionally interfere with a fielder.

SYJHTU.

A play was not being made on R1 at the time of the interference, the ball was thrown past 1B and F3 was going for the loose ball on the ground.

3.15 says the umpire shall impose penalties that nullify the interference. On an overthrown ball, most likely R1 and R2 advance so what would nullify this? I think it would be more reasonable to return both R1 and R2 because the ball is dead on interference and eject the coach.

[SanDiegoSteve]

Originally Posted by DG

A play was not being made on R1 at the time of the interference, the ball was thrown past 1B and F3 was going for the loose ball on the ground.

3.15 says the umpire shall impose penalties that nullify the interference. On an overthrown ball, most likely R1 and R2 advance so what would nullify this? I think it would be more reasonable to return both R1 and R2 because the ball is dead on interference and eject the coach.

I don't think so. How can you say that F3 wouldn't have ran down the ball, turned and thrown to a base and got an out? He was deprived of that opportunity by the blatant, intentional interference by a coach. The coach did not just get in the way, he willfully and purposefully interfered with F3's attempt to get the ball and make a play.

The original play was on R1, so I'm imposing a penalty that nullifies the interference, and calling R1 out. I'm not calling offensive interference and not getting an out out of it.

First I eject the coach.

[DG]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

How can you say that F3 wouldn't have ran down the ball, turned and thrown to a base and got an out?

I have never seen an R1 or R2 thrown out by an F3 who chased down an errant pickoff.

[fitump56]

Originally Posted by SanDiegoSteve

How can you say that F3 wouldn't have ran down the ball, turned and thrown to a base and got an out?

Originally Posted by DG

I have never seen an R1 or R2 thrown out by an F3 who chased down an errant pickoff.

Not picking on you personally but it this kind of all too frequent comment that makes me wonder what planet Off.com Forum posters live on.

I cannot count the numerous times that R1 has been picked at 2B by F3 when there is a short fence behind the 1B bag. Dozens, for sure, hundreds, maybe.

[fitump56]

Originally Posted by _Bruno_

sit : R1,R2 0 outs,
pitcher steps off and throws to F3 but the throw is high. F3 chases the ball but trips over the 1stbase coach and the umpire thinks that the 1stbase coach made F3 intentionaly trip. whats the ruling ?

Thinks or knows?

If knows, then I advance all runners as liberally as possible. If the fence is long away, I give two bases to each, no discussion. If short, I give two bases to each and be ready to tell HC that his FBC is soo out of line, that if he wishes to have any further discussion, there will be two coahes ejected, not one, and a forfeit may well be in effect.

[NFump]

Originally Posted by fitump56

Thinks or knows?

If knows, then I advance all runners as liberally as possible. If the fence is long away, I give two bases to each, no discussion. If short, I give two bases to each and be ready to tell HC that his FBC is soo out of line, that if he wishes to have any further discussion, there will be two coahes ejected, not one, and a forfeit may well be in effect.

Holy cow Batman!!! You might want to rethink this one. 1st base coach interferes (deliberately) and you're giving the offense bases?! Hmmmm....methinks thou art incorrect.